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There are 29 generations listed from David to Jesus in Matthew's genealogy (1:6-16), while Luke's (3:23-31) has 43. Except for David at one end and Jesus at the other, there are only three names in the two lists that are the same.

2006-08-06 11:18:27 · 13 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

13 answers

This is an old question that people have been asking for about 2000 years or so. And it keeps poping up on Yahoo Answers all the time.

This cut & paste might help:

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Some point to these differences as evidence of errors in the Bible. However, the Jews were meticulous record keepers, especially in regards to genealogies. It is inconceivable that Matthew and Luke could built two entirely contradictory genealogies of the same lineage. Again, from David through Jesus, the genealogies are completely different. Even the reference to Shealtiel and Zerubbabel likely refer to different individuals of the same names. Matthew gives Shealtiel's father as Jeconiah while Luke gives Shealtiel's father as Neri. It would be normal for a man named Shealtiel to name his son Zerubbabel in light of the famous individuals of those names (see the books of Ezra and Nehemiah).

Another explanation is that Matthew is tracing the primary lineage while Luke is taking into account the occurrences of "levirite marriage." If a man died without having any sons, it was tradition for the man's brother to marry his wife and have a son who would carry on the man's name. While possible, this view is unlikely as every generation from David to Jesus would have had a "levirite marriage" in order to account for the differences in every generation. This is highly unlikely.

With these concepts in view, most conservative Bible scholars assume Luke is recording Mary’s genealogy and Matthew is recording Joseph’s. Matthew is following the line of Joseph (Jesus’ legal father), through David’s son Solomon, while Luke is following the line of Mary (Jesus’ blood relative), though David’s son Nathan. There was no Greek word for "son-in-law," and Joseph would have been considered a son of Heli through marrying Heli's daughter Mary. Through either line, Jesus is a descendant of David and therefore eligible to be the Messiah. Tracing a genealogy through the mother’s side is unusual, but so was the virgin birth. Luke’s explanation is that Jesus was the son of Joseph “so it was thought” (Luke 3:23).

2006-08-06 11:38:22 · answer #1 · answered by Randy G 7 · 10 3

With these concepts in view, most conservative Bible scholars assume Luke is recording Mary’s genealogy and Matthew is recording Joseph’s. Matthew is following the line of Joseph (Jesus’ legal father), through David’s son Solomon, while Luke is following the line of Mary (Jesus’ blood relative), though David’s son Nathan. There was no Greek word for "son-in-law," and Joseph would have been considered a son of Heli through marrying Heli's daughter Mary. Through either line, Jesus is a descendant of David and therefore eligible to be the Messiah. Tracing a genealogy through the mother’s side is unusual, but so was the virgin birth. Luke’s explanation is that Jesus was the son of Joseph “so it was thought” (Luke 3:23).

2006-08-06 11:28:18 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I see what you are getting at Keyser. I thought, at first, you were asking if they were writing about the same Jesus, because of perspective differences and slight changes in stories....my bad. Lineage is a very strange thing in the Bible and 2,000 years ago it was easy to be excommunicated by your family. You just no longer existed! In some Jewish cultures it is still the same today. Yes though dear, they were talking about the same Jesus. Great question, good for thought provocation! :)

2006-08-06 11:27:59 · answer #3 · answered by nanawnuts 5 · 0 0

One thing to remember....Jesus lineage back to David can be traced back through his adopted earthly father, Joseph, which would "count" because lineage was usually traced through the father and adoption was just as legal as biological.

Jesus could also trace his family tree to David through his mother, Mary. She and her family were also descendents of the line of David, only another off-shoot.

In all likelyhood Luke was referring to Mary's family tree since he is the one who wrote so many other things about her.

Both Gospel Books may not say the same things, but both are also correct in what they say. God Bless you and yours.

PAX

2006-08-06 11:25:39 · answer #4 · answered by Augustine 6 · 0 0

Maternal and fraternal can easily explain the differnece.

The fact that the only written documentation of lineage would be held by the rabi's means both the authors of matthew and luke could have made errors and ommissions.

2006-08-06 11:24:02 · answer #5 · answered by mike g 4 · 0 0

That's because Luke recognized the fact that God had cursed David's blood line, therefore he gave Christ's lineage through Mary.

2006-08-06 11:22:28 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

One was tracing Jesus Genealogy through Mary, and the other one through Joseph. They were, after all, from different tribes, and had different lineage.

2006-08-06 11:25:38 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

That is an interesting occurrence that I've never come across before. i'll go look in to it too.

It seems that they are talking about the right guy, but maybe someone somewhere got bumped off the list of relatives for some reason or another.

2006-08-06 11:23:43 · answer #8 · answered by baghyrha 2 · 0 0

Same Jesus with the same lineage, but one switched to the maternal while the other stayed with the paternal.

2006-08-06 11:24:51 · answer #9 · answered by unicorn 4 · 0 0

Its the same Jesus , two different writers.

2006-08-06 11:22:31 · answer #10 · answered by ? 7 · 0 0

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