2006-07-13 12:38:50 · 9 answers · asked by Infinity 1 in Health ➔ Diseases & Conditions ➔ STDs
Not if neither of your parents have it.
2006-07-13 12:40:55 · answer #1 · answered by Elizabeth 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In order for a baby to have a STD such as HIV or Gonorehea the mother must be infected.
2006-07-13 12:41:57 · answer #2 · answered by Geo 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i don't think so. so if you have one, i think your mom must have it but doesn't know. stds like herpes and hpv sometimes have no symptoms and are not included in a routine std or pap test at the doctor. you have to specifically ask for those tests.
2006-07-13 12:42:30 · answer #3 · answered by kogirl 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Of course not. How in the world would that be possible. Common sense people. Think before you ask.
2006-07-13 12:42:12 · answer #4 · answered by bittersweet 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no, because usually the mother has to be a carrier of an STD and transmit it to you through the womb or childbirth
2006-07-13 12:42:02 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
umm how the hell would i know imma go with nope
2006-07-18 08:01:20 · answer #6 · answered by where can i find a boyfriend 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no, how would that be possible? Use common sense.
2006-07-13 13:00:20 · answer #7 · answered by venus11224 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i think but i dont know
2006-07-13 14:45:42 · answer #8 · answered by anthony_rapp_fan 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No.
2006-07-13 12:41:42 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋