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Although I am a Catholic, I call the Qu'ran a worthy revelation. To me, it is just like the First 5 books of the Bible that Moses wrote with some allusion to the first years of Christianity and Rome but with Allah telling Muhammed, "No, this is what really happened." Now, although I seek the Bible to be my Truth and The Qu'ran likewise to the Muslims, to those who compare religions, isn't it like the militarized version of the Bible those who have read both?

2006-07-06 17:43:44 · 13 answers · asked by elguapo_marco_2008@sbcglobal.net 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

13 answers

Ofcourse its not...THe things common in both of them is that both quran and bible are written by ALLAH (GOD)...n both are divine comands directed to GOD's prophets...what militarized version u talkin about?its not the case...Quran happened to be the last of the divine books from ALLAH and it came after a period of 1000 years to bible...the original bible i mean...not the SOO many versions these days....therefore, what u call the militraized aspect came du eto the changing social and political circumstances and one shud not argue that GOD knew whats gonna happen n when...therefore HE wrote in the book whatever HE thought is more appropriate for the mankind to follow MUHAMMAD's period...while jehad itself is a long debate...but your point that Quran seems 2b a militarized version of bible doesnt seem to be justified enough m afraid

2006-07-06 17:57:08 · answer #1 · answered by Zuhair-from-pakistan 4 · 1 0

I have not read the Bible but I have been reading the Qur'an and basically Islam is just fixing differences between Jews and Christians... Islam is an upgrade of the Abrahmic religion persay. Islam was not sent down to change anything, it was meant to bring people back to what us Muslims consider true faith. And you are right, The Qur'an makes multiple mentions of the Bible and Torah and says that they have a lot of truth in them although a lot of each of the books has changed in translation (a fact most Christians at least the ones i talk to acknowledge by the way) the Qur'an isint meant to be anything new so you should find similarities between the two books. In a few words, Islam was sent down to do to Christianity and Judiasm as Christianity was sent down to do to Judiasm...give reguidance to people

2006-07-07 00:50:40 · answer #2 · answered by Ahmed 2 · 0 0

I've read both and no it isn't.

Context is key.

You can take a particular verse from the Old Testament of the Bible where God commands the Hebrews to take all the lands of a particular tribe, leaving no women or even children as survivors ---- taken out of context, as much of the Qu'ran is likewise done - one would think both books are Militant.

Not enough people do their homework anymore, these works of poetry, beauty and history rarely get the respect they deserve. And this coming from an Agnostic.

2006-07-07 00:50:34 · answer #3 · answered by annetacular 2 · 0 0

I love how you respect the relegion and have such a good judgement making about the Quran. I have not really read the bible but I too respect it if it gives you good moral teachings and values. It upsets us when people who have only heard about the Quran being bad assume it is and believe it. Heck that is so wrong...too say or assume that why don't people look up or do some research about how valuable it is and amazing? I know there have been people who have given our relegion a bad name but it is a beautiful one.

I have nothing against any other relegion. Each must be having its own specialty in the most amazing ways. Do you know how much I love the carols at your churches?

Anyhows,thanks so much for respecting our relegion and our book. Thanks so much for not believing in the misconceptions made about it..

2006-07-07 00:57:17 · answer #4 · answered by Bisma 2 · 0 0

The Qur'an says that the Torah and the Bible were ONCE reputable books but their original messages have been lost over time. It is the purpose of the Qur'an to be everlasting in message. If you take the Arabic in the original Qur'ans and the ones we print today they are exactly the same.

2006-07-07 00:51:59 · answer #5 · answered by talkwithflowers 2 · 0 0

The Bible is the militarized version of the Bible. Haven't you read it?

2006-07-07 00:51:49 · answer #6 · answered by lenny 7 · 0 0

Actually Quran is not confusing as much as bible is
Concerning the controversial issues in the Bible, how can Christians decide by two-thirds majority what is God’s Word and what is not, as the prefaces of some Bibles say like that one of the RSV ?
.Why does Luke in his gospel report the Ascension on Easter Day, and in the Acts, in which he is recognized as the author, FORTY days later?
.The genealogy of Jesus is mentioned in Matthew and Luke only. Matthew listed 26 forefathers from Joseph to David while Luke enumerated 41 forefathers. Only Joseph matches with Joseph in those two lists. Not a single other name matches! If these were inspired by God word by word, how could they be different? Some claim that one is for Mary and one is for Joseph, but where does it says Mary in those two Gospels?
.If Moses wrote the first books of the Old Testament, how could Moses write his own obituary? Moses died in the fifth book at age 120 as mentioned in Deut. 34:5-10.
.In the King James Version, why does it report SEVEN years of famine in II SAMUEL 24:13 while it reports THREE years of famine in I CHRONICLES 21:12? Why did they change both to THREE years in the New International Version and other versions?
.Still In the same King James Version, why does it say that Jehoiachin was eight years old when he began to reign in II CHRONICLES 21:12, while it says EIGHTEEN years in II KINGS 24:8? Why did thessey change in both to EIGHTEEN in the new Versions?
.In all versions, why does it say that David slew the men of SEVEN HUNDRED chariots of the Syrians, and forty thousand HORSEMEN as evidenced in II Samuel 10:18 while its says SEVEN THOUSAND men which fought in chariots, and forty thousand FOOTMEN, in I CHRONICLES 19:18?
.In all versions, why does it report TWO thousand baths in I KINGS 7:26 while II CHRONICLES 4:5 reports THREE THOUSAND?
.In the King James version, why does it report that Solomon had FOUR THOUSAND stalls for horses in II CHRONICLES 9:25 while it accounts that Solomon had FORTY THOUSAND stalls of horses in 1 KINGS 4:26? Why did they change both to FOUR THOUSAND in the new versions?

.In GENESIS 1, God’s creation progresses from grass to trees to fowls, whales, cattle and creeping things and finally to man and woman. GENESIS 2, however, puts the creation of man before cattle and fowl and woman subsequent to beast. How can this be explained?
i dont know about the authors of bible & i dont trust bible because it was wriiten by mens like us who can be tempted by satan

2006-07-07 00:53:03 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

This is a book that should not be followed. It can only lead to death and distruction. Read the Bible.

2006-07-07 00:47:27 · answer #8 · answered by Geoff C 3 · 0 0

Torah is the first edition of God's book.
Bible is second edition of God's book.
Qur'an is third and final edition of God's book.

2006-07-07 04:09:36 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

in the quran, it was written a few hundred years after muhammed's death. it was written about mostly war and that they must kill to get their rewards. he was a prophet that even his own family abolished as they thought he was insane. he found people who would listen to his visions which were of a crazy man. he went to war against his own people. its based on wars and killing to gain ones beliefs.

2006-07-07 00:53:23 · answer #10 · answered by hollywood71@verizon.net 5 · 0 0

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