More than once I've used a specific passage, word for word, from the Bible (in my case The King James Bible) and have had people here in Yahoo Answers tell me I misquoted the passage.
Then they 'correct' me by re-phrasing the passage, altering the meaning.
An example: Directly from King James: He that is without sin among you, let him cast a stone. - James 8:7.
Then I'm told the passage actually says "He who is without the same sin..."
(As you can see, this alters the meaning greatly.)
Then I'm told the passage actually says " ...cast the first stone."
(Which, while nearly the same, still alters the true meaning of the passage.)
So, my friends, how many of you base your quotes on a bible other than the King James? And which one, which translation?
And more importantly, why would you be sure that your translation is any more true, any more pure than the old standard King James?
Thank you all in advance.
2006-07-06
17:27:25
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12 answers
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asked by
Doc Watson
7
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
Sorry, my bad! That's John 8:7. Thank you for pointing that out.
2006-07-06
17:46:29 ·
update #1
I love this question because I get to ask you one. Why are New Testament quotes of the Old Testament different from the actual Old Testament passages themselves? Example:
Matthew 1:23 "Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel." (KJV)
Isaiah 7:14 "Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel." (KJV)
This is one of many, many O.T. quotes in the N.T. that are very different from one another. Check it out for yourself. The reason that they are different is because the New Testament writers quoted from a Greek translation of the O.T. called the Septuagint. But our O.T. translation itself is translated into English from the Hebrew scriptures known as the Mazoretic text. My question is this. Which version is the inspired version of the Old Testament? The Mazoretic text or the Septuagint?
If you can't answer that question, then you get the point. Splitting angel hairs over which translation is the "right" translation is pointless.
Also, since the KJV over was written 300 years ago, there have been numerous ancient manuscripts discovered that are older and more reliable than the evidence that was available to the King James translators. That is why sections like what you found in John 8 are either removed or put in parenthesis as possibly not being in the original Greek or Hebrew manuscript in many of the newer translations (even the very conservative American Standard Versions).
The key is the heart of the team that is doing the translating- Do they give evidence that they take the responsibility of translating "the word of God" as a heavy and serious responsibility? Or, do they have a theological axe to grind? And so on. Only the original writing of the scriptures in their original language is believed to be infallible- not ANY translation.
And, the whole purpose of making an English translation at the time was so that the common citizen could have a copy of the Bible that they could understand. That is the same motive that drives the many translations today- making a translation that is as true as possible to the original languages of Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek, while making it an effective and usable tool of the faith for a GREATLY evolved English speaking world.
Grace and peace to you and yours.
2006-07-06 18:10:42
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answer #1
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answered by Hesed 3
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I know what you mean, I mainly use the King James Bible , and it is hard to understand sometimes what is being said, so somewhere, and I really don't know where this book I have ,came from, but It's has 8 different translations of the Bible, so I read the King James version then read one of the other translations and it really helps, but sometimes the new age is really translated with very over the top words that could have been simpified. and closer to the King James meaning.
2006-07-07 00:37:05
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answer #2
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answered by purpleaura1 6
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the King James version is a great bible, but it was writen for the old english kings. You see the king James version put the king up with god at the same level. I like the King James version but I rather have a "greek and hebrew" version becaus this bible has a great diconary. It will go deep into the bible and show you what each word means or stands for. Plus the old testament was writen in hebrew, and the new testament was writhen in greek.
2006-07-07 00:40:48
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answer #3
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answered by Dr. Head 2
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There are two versions of the King James. The original and and updated version, because too many people had a hard time understanding some of the wording of the original King James so they "updated" it and by doing so changed some of the words.
2006-07-07 00:32:38
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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King James.There are the translations that make it easier to understand what is being said.I always use theKing James version.I have an International version I bought a year ago.I check it but always go back and double check the Good old King James Bible.
2006-07-07 00:31:57
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answer #5
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answered by greenstateresearcher 5
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This is intresting! I quote verses through the KJV (King James Version) I see no need for one to correct you; simply they should be asking which bible you are using rather than correcting anything. I find it wrong how people seem to correct others about the bible and the meaning. So quite frankly I agree with your point!
2006-07-07 00:34:52
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answer #6
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answered by Stay-funny 3
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I prefer the KJV when I need a word for word translation to argue some theological point. As to the passage that you've posted, don't forget what Jesus said to the woman at the end.
John 8:11 She said, No man, Lord. And Jesus said unto her, Neither do I condemn thee: go, and sin no more.
P.S. you did mean John 8:7 didn't you?
2006-07-07 00:31:22
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answer #7
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answered by Martin S 7
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I may use other versions to time. But when it comes down to Doctorine or Reproof or Correction or Instruction in righteousness I use the KJV. Just reading my preferred is the King James it is interesting to see other ways of interpreting sometimes but I stick with the Good Ole King's English KJV cause it doesn't slant and doesn't prefer any denomination just straight answers form the Word of God!!!!!!!!
2006-07-07 01:01:29
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answer #8
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answered by Wayne S 3
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I use both King James Version and New International Version (NIV). I do agree though that some versions of the Bible are not concise to the one that is in KJV. As for NIV, however, I haven't seen, in all my years of reading the Bible, that it has changed the idea with that of KJV.
2006-07-07 00:34:50
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answer #9
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answered by Charmaine * 3
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Hi there!
I prefer the King James Version. Newer versions have been altered and the meaning as you have noticed changed....
God Bless.
2006-07-07 00:29:34
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answer #10
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answered by mx3baby 6
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