I know that it is allowed for Muslim Guys to marry Christian and Jew
girls without converting. But currently in the West most Christian
and Jewish girls are not virgins that means they commits forcination.
Is ist allowed according to Islam to marry indecent Western girls
in the present context and situation? Muslims answer please.
2006-07-06
14:19:28
·
8 answers
·
asked by
Anonymous
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
I think she should be chaste. That means she need not be a virgin(that is she was previously married) but never commited fornication. In that sense a chaste Muslim guy is not allowed to marry an unchaste Muslim girl.
"This day are all things good and pure made lawful to you.... Lawful to you in marriage are not only chaste women who are believers, but chaste women among the People of the Book, revealed before your time, when you give them their due dowers, and desire chastity not lewdness. If any one rejects faith, fruitless is his work, and in the Hereafter he will be in the ranks of those who have lost" (Qur'an 5:5).
2006-07-06
14:39:38 ·
update #1
answer to parable:
don't give stupid answers. did u understand what i said? most girls in the west irrespective of jewish or christians lose their virginity. you don't have to find 4 witness for that.it's a fact. and they r so shameless that they will not even hide that if you ask them. if your wife **** infront of u --only u will be the witness. will u be able to do anything against her?
Allah told us to marry only chaste women. You don't have to accuse any particular girl but if you suspect that there exists much more possibility of that girl to be unchaste--should you marry her?
2006-07-07
08:41:34 ·
update #2