2006-07-04 20:35:35 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
That is a really good question! I am sure there are many different explanations for this, but interestingly the only explanations I could find where from "Messianic Jewish" websites.
The Messianic Jewish explanation is that because this passage (Isaiah 53, or Yeshayahu 53) contains a reference to the "suffering servant," or "Messiah," in their interpretation, this passage is omitted in order to cover up a reference to the "true Messiah" (Christ, or Jesus, again in their interpretation).
I have yet to find a Jewish perspective on this. I will get back to you if I do!
2006-07-04 20:53:41 · answer #1 · answered by e.estlinz 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because it gives a description of Jesus as the messiah. A man who would be meek, who would be aflicted an rejected by his people before being killed by them.
2006-07-04 20:50:13 · answer #2 · answered by Marty 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Do you mean Isaiah 53? If so, I will answer your question even though I'm sure you already know.....
2006-07-04 20:54:07 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It contains a dirty joke
2006-07-04 20:38:43 · answer #4 · answered by Vermin 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋