English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

Why do people ONLY apply it to the Jews when there are A LOT OF non jewish SEMITES??????

THEY INCLUDE THE ARABS, MUSLIMS and others.

Also, FOR ALL YOU CONSPIRACY THEORISTS, IM NOT ARAB OR MUSLIM!

2006-07-01 17:05:00 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

9 answers

Good question. I never knew that! Maybe it originates from the time when the Jews were the only, or the most numerous semitic group in europe. So within europe, hating semites would equal hating jews, just because there were hardly any others.

2006-07-01 17:55:14 · answer #1 · answered by Ymmo the Heathen 7 · 0 0

A Semite is often defined as a Jew, or a descendant of Shem. In general it is any of the people across the Middle East or North and East Africa which speak a Semitic language- the most popular of which is Arabic. Originally the term was used to describe prejudice against Jews in Germany during the 1870's as it sounded less hateful then the phrase in use at the time- "Judenhass" or "jew-hating". The term seems to simply have stuck as a term used exclusively to describe prejudice against Jews and not other types of Semitic people.

2006-07-01 17:30:31 · answer #2 · answered by pestkaj 2 · 0 0

Got me:


'Semites are peoples who speak Semitic languages; the group includes Arabs, Aramaeans, Jews, and many Ethiopians. In a Biblical sense, Semites are peoples whose ancestry can be traced back to Shem, Noah's eldest son. The ancient Semitic populations were pastoral Nomads who several centuries before the Christian Era were migrating in large numbers from Arabia to Mesopotamia, the coasts of the Mediterranean Sea, and the Nile River delta. Jews and other Semites settled in villages in Judea, southern Palestine.

Present day speakers of Semitic languages are as diverse in physical, psychological, cultural, and sociological characteristics as are speakers of Indo European languages. The most prominent Semites today are Arabs and Jews. They are different in many ways, and they have absorbed a variety of European traits through centuries of migration and trade. The origin of Semitic languages, however, and many similarities in the stories of Islam and Judaism reflect a common ancient history"

2006-07-01 17:22:47 · answer #3 · answered by digilook 2 · 0 0

This is due to the idiosyncracies in semantics regarding words in English or any other language.

Although the English word "Semite" does mean anyone who is descended from Sem, which would include Jews and Arabs and other Semetic peoples, nevertheless, the word "anti semite" or "anti semetic" was specifically coined (19th century) to refer specifically to Jew hatred and not hatred of any Semite.

In other words, this is its dictionary definition and most authoritative dictionaries will agree on this issue.

2006-07-02 07:01:57 · answer #4 · answered by BMCR 7 · 0 0

again it seems like you have narrowed down a vastly broad topic to shine light on one aspect of this here is your answer. plain and simple and 100% correct.
anti-semitism doesn't apply only to jews. as you pointed out they are not the only semites so therefore it is impossible that anti-semitism onlly applies to jews. you are a fine example of a little knowledge being dangerous" you answered your own question.

2006-07-15 04:45:09 · answer #5 · answered by polyesterfred 3 · 0 0

do you even know how the anti-semitism term evolved?

The word antisemitic (antisemitisch in German) was probably first used in 1860 by the Jewish scholar Moritz Steinschneider in the phrase "antisemitic prejudices" (German: "antisemitische Vorurteile"). Steinschneider used this phrase to characterize Ernest Renan's ideas about how "Semitic races" were inferior to "Aryan races." These pseudo-scientific theories concerning race, civilization, and "progress" had become quite widespread in Europe in the second half of the 19th century, especially as Prussian nationalistic historian Heinrich von Treitschke did much to promote this form of racism. In Treitschke's writings Semitic was practically synonymous with Jewish, in contrast to its usage by Renan and others.

German political agitator Wilhelm Marr coined the related German word Antisemitismus in his book "The Way to Victory of Germanicism over Judaism" in 1879. Marr used the phrase to mean Jew-hatred or Judenhass, and he used the new word antisemitism to make hatred of the Jews seem rational and sanctioned by scientific knowledge. Marr's book became very popular, and in the same year he founded the "League of Anti-Semites" ("Antisemiten-Liga"), the first German organization committed specifically to combatting the alleged threat to Germany posed by the Jews, and advocating their forced removal from the country


you see Jews did not even invent the term! it was first used by those who wanted another word to express their hate for Jews.

2006-07-13 11:03:48 · answer #6 · answered by Gamla Joe 7 · 0 0

You are inquisitive. It is because of history. Read about the opression of Jews. The light will shine on you. Seeker ye shall find.

2006-07-15 04:39:06 · answer #7 · answered by Ouros 5 · 0 0

Hiya- You seem like a rather angry chap. Lot's of your questions seem very...... CAPITALIZED.

You must be an arab or a musli... oh wait... nevermind...

2006-07-15 16:52:59 · answer #8 · answered by User 3 · 0 0

HUH?!?

2006-07-01 17:11:15 · answer #9 · answered by n9wff 6 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers