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This is not to be rude or cheeky. I think it's a legit question.
If Joseph Smith was an American who lived in the 1800's then why did he translate his book into Elizabethan English?

2006-07-01 16:25:00 · 2 answers · asked by cirque de lune 6 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

2 answers

That book also lists coins of various denominations - not one of which was ever found.

go to any seance - the ""spirits"" usually effect an Elizabethan character.

2006-07-01 16:32:40 · answer #1 · answered by whynotaskdon 7 · 2 0

Because he was a fraud who combined his knowledge of the King James Bible with his own inherent story telling capability and pawned it off as the "Book of Mormon" and the "Doctrine and Covenants".

2006-07-02 00:07:44 · answer #2 · answered by idspudnik 4 · 0 0

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