when did the marriage relationship change from one man, one woman?
2006-07-01 14:54:55 · 14 answers · asked by disma1 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
I suspect that it was tolerated, not approved. As in the case of divorce, the Pharisees, stretched the definition saying, "Why did Moses COMMAND us to write a certificate of divorce...?" Jesus corrected them, saying "Moses ALLOWED you to write a certificate of divorce." It was not the prefered situation, and neither was polygamy. As far as the ideal situation, Jesus referred to the one man-- one woman model when He spoke of a man leaving his father and mother and joining with his (implied, one) wife and becoming one flesh with that one.
Your question is an excellent one, because otherwise people who read the Bible carelessly might suppose that polygamy was normative or approved at one time. Thank you for asking!
2006-07-01 15:03:37 · answer #1 · answered by cdf-rom 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Polygamy was not taught in the Old Testament. But what I do know is that when a brother in the same family, his brother died that brother was obligated to house the dead brothers family. Knowing the perverse nature of man's nature, it would be an easy step to encourage polygamy.
Hence that may be the reason that the Kings of Israel had concubines, taking in the wives of fallen soldiers. Sometimes God's mercy can be expanded beyond their intended boundries.
2006-07-01 22:08:54 · answer #2 · answered by rapturefuture 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Polygammy was not an accepted practice by God in the Old Testament.. People did it, but that did not make it OK. God always honored the patern he set up in Adam and Eve. He was angered when the pattern was broken. Nowhere does it ever say that God approved of it. Joseph Smith had his own idea of it and he was tarred and feathered for it and eventually lost his life because of it.
2006-07-01 22:03:56 · answer #3 · answered by rejoiceinthelord 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Polygamy was never accepted by God in the old testament.
2006-07-01 22:02:53 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It was until up to the Exodus due to a purer genetic code. And that was the only way humans were going to fulfil the command to populate the earth. Then he condemned it. But there were those that did it anyway. Like King David. But that would be the reason that I know of. Genetic code breaking down over time.
2006-07-01 22:04:51 · answer #5 · answered by caedmonscall99 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Actually, it has been accepted all throughout early history, and it is new to be monogamous. That was a social change that adapted along with the rise of Christianity, and probably pre-Christ Judaism. I assume it was just a societal change that became part of dogma because of its prevalence.
2006-07-01 21:59:38 · answer #6 · answered by nt326 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The "Old Testiment" was for The Nation of Israel. God's chosen people. Polygamy was practiced by many not of Israel. But for God's people it was not suposed to be alowed. For those of God's people who tried it there was trouble. careful reading of all the referances to this will show that.
2006-07-01 22:03:34 · answer #7 · answered by IdahoMike 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Too many girls.... not enough boys.... had to share until there was enough boys....and Jesus changed the rules from Mosaic Law. Alot of things that were acceptable in the Old Testiment were changed because they weren't necessary anymore.
2006-07-02 02:34:08 · answer #8 · answered by Tiffany G 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It was practiced, but not approved. From the beginning of humanity God intended one man for one woman for life. Nothing else.
2006-07-01 22:00:18 · answer #9 · answered by rockEsquirrel 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It wasn't acceptable. If you research all of the different people in the OT that married more than one woman, it had bad results.
2006-07-01 21:59:14 · answer #10 · answered by Proverbs2-2 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋