2006-07-01 10:35:22 · 9 answers · asked by fatbadge 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
The two states are named for two different Native American tribes.
Kansas was named for the Kansa (Kanza, Kaw) tribe. It is thought that the word, Kansa, means "People of the South Wind."
The first European who arrived in Arkansas was the Spaniard Hernando de Soto, explorer at the end of the 16th Century. The early Spanish or French explorers of the state gave it its name, which is probably a phonetic spelling for the French or Catalan word for "downriver" people, a reference to the Quapaw people and the river along which they settled..
It is strange that the spelling of the two names is the same but they have different root meanings... another case of Europeans messing up Native American names I guess.
An interesting point to add to your question...
The river that flows from Colorado through Kansas and Oklahoma into Arkansas, the Arkansas River, is pronounced "AR-cun-saw" by most everybody except Kansans. In the state of Kansas this river name is pronounced "ar-KAN-sus." There's also a small city in Kansas, Arkansas City, whose name is pronounced "ar-KAN-sus" City.
Another interesting point... Back in 1881 Arkansas' Legislature enacted a law that specifies how the name of the state is pronounced. Kansas has never felt the need to do this.
Bill
2006-07-02 10:25:20 · answer #1 · answered by Grumpy Kansan 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well, being a life-long Kansan, and although I hate to admit that now spans 45+ years, you have to go back to the origin of the state's name. By clerical error we know it as Kansas. It was named after the Kanza indian tribe so it was supposed to have been Kanzas. I guess someone didn't like "z"s very much.
Oddly enough, if you do go to Wichita, Kansas, any mention of Arkansas is Ar-Kansas. That would be in terms of the street and the two rivers.
2006-07-05 02:16:31 · answer #2 · answered by sir_galahad_ks 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
my best guess is that it has to do with the roots of the words, ro perhaps the people that inhabited those areas.... if you pronounce arkansas in french, it sounds exactly "like it should"...maybe somebody who was french named arkansas, or a lot of french people lived in arkansas
2006-07-01 12:48:56 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's just how the two different Naitive American tribes said their names, because they spoke different languages.
I live in Kansas by the way
2006-07-01 14:14:08 · answer #4 · answered by Mateo 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
very good point. I can only assume that maybe they were spelt differently to how they are now and people pronounce it the same as it once was spelt. it happens a lot over here in the UK.
2006-07-01 10:52:33 · answer #5 · answered by heathen_mum 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is just a guess; but, it could be that the two words are from different derivations.
2006-07-01 19:06:44 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not in England they're not.....we say Cans-*** and we say Are-cans-*** - but then - we are only English and we don't get out much............
Why is it the 'spell checker' didn't find any errors in this statement?
Though I note it did block my *** at every turn!
2006-07-01 11:21:40 · answer #7 · answered by franja 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i dont know, but i have wondered this also for some time.
the bloke says its because they are spelt differently!!! ha ha ha
i get where you are coming from though!
2006-07-01 11:01:51 · answer #8 · answered by doodlepol 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
fighten' cousins (who the hell cares, they're all rednecks)
2006-07-02 09:24:49 · answer #9 · answered by Canario92 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋