Deep-fried fish and deep-fried chips have appeared separately on menus for many years — though potatoes did not reach Europe until the 17th century. The originally Sephardi dish Pescado frito, or deep-fried fish, came to the Netherlands and England with the Spanish and Portuguese Jews in the 17th and 18th centuries. The dish became popular in wider circles in London and the south-east in the middle of the 19th century (Charles Dickens mentions a "fried fish warehouse" in Oliver Twist - first published in 1838) whilst in the north of England a trade in deep-fried "chipped" potatoes developed; one (sometimes disputed) claim records the first chip shop as existing on the present site of Oldham's Tommyfield Market. It remains unclear exactly when and where these two trades combined to become the fish and chip shop industry we know today, though Joseph Malin opened the first recorded combined fish and chip shop in London in 1860.
The fish-and-chip shop originates in the UK, where it has usually become abbreviated to 'chippy', or occasionally 'chipper'.
During World War II, fish and chips remained one of the few foods in the UK not subject to rationing
soooooo, maybe - maybe not. But who is going to challenge you either way? If the caveman had fire and some kind of oil, fish and something to slice into chips (doesn't have to be potatoes) it might have been possible. Only thing we know for sure, he didn't have take out.....or did he? :}
2006-06-29 16:37:14
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answer #1
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answered by dddanse 5
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Not sure if cave men had the wherewithall to catch a fish, I think they may have thought that the gods lived in the sea and may not have ventured out for fear that they would be swallowed up. Fish in those days were not like the fish we have now, there wasn't your Dover Sole, or your Monk Fish, Oh no - they were really scary looking creatures, and as for frying chips, I think that would have been one step too far for the cave man, he would just go out and bludgeon some poor deer or pig and eat it raw - Yummy
2006-06-30 03:11:04
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answer #2
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answered by Joanne A 4
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Certainly you wouldn't have had sunflowers or potatoes, as neither existed in the UK at that time, doubtful; whether there were chickens either, but there are other sources of eggs. Certainly no controllable heat for frying, so likely to burst into flames as you would be cooking over open flames.
2016-03-26 22:28:19
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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I don't think cave men would have cooked fish and chips...they would have made the women cook it after the women had gone and cut the wood for the fire, hauled water, and cleaned the fish...
2006-06-29 19:39:25
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answer #4
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answered by meagain2238 4
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may be if he had a way to heat the oli safely a large pan or someway of coating the chips in the oil befor layuing them on something to place over an open stove (basically resulting in frying them.
same goes for the fish
2006-06-29 14:24:08
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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They could cook fish and roast the potatoes just straight from the ground,without peeling them.
2006-06-29 20:14:35
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answer #6
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answered by Bob Mukonka 4
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It would have been hard to get a pot of boiling oil. Did you know that up ontil this centuery, people did deep fry in lard, rendered animal fat.
2006-06-29 14:10:28
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answer #7
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answered by Sue Chef 6
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impossible
cavemen didnt have potatoes so no chips
there was a water shortage so no fish
but they could cook them if they had them on an open fire
2006-06-29 19:22:39
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answer #8
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answered by motown 5
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Sure, probably after the whole inventing the wheel thing.
2006-06-29 18:13:29
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answer #9
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answered by Bets 1
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He or she cold cook fish but not cips.
2006-06-29 14:07:49
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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