I had sex with one partner in April and then another in May and this past Sunday. I found out on Monday that I had Chlamydia. But the partner that I had sex with in May is saying that they got tested June 15th and they were negative so if they do have it now it means that I gave it to them on Sunday. But if I got it in April they should have got it when we had sex in May.
2006-06-27
15:38:51
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11 answers
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asked by
Vicky9712
1
in
Health
➔ Diseases & Conditions
➔ STDs
My husband and I split up in March of this year and I moved back to my home town. The last time we had sex was right before we split up.I had sex with my ex once in April, twice in May, and once on June 25th. However. on June 26th I found out that I had chlamydia. My husband (when confronted) admitted to having unprotected sex with someone else and was tested and treated. (His results won't be in until Thursday) When I told my ex, he said that he had a check up for std's on June15th and it was negative so if he does come up positive for chlamydia now I must have given it to him on June 25th. If he has it now,why didn't he get it in April and May?
2006-06-27
16:23:10 ·
update #1