2006-06-09 22:56:54 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Civic Participation
No. It is abuse of common law.
2006-06-09 23:07:08 · answer #1 · answered by Milton 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You need to make clear what you are trying to ask. Abuse of the elderly (or abuse over a long period of time, if, perhaps, that is what you meant) has no direct effect on the law, common or otherwise. The law, however, may affect the abuser and give some protection to the abused.
I am not sure what you mean by 'common law'. If you refer to an association with another person where it might be assumed that co-habitation has reached a state of permanence, then you should take legal advice because the laws covering a long-standing cohabitation vary from country to country.
Do I understand you to say that in a 'common law' marriage, there has been abuse over a long period of time and you wish to know your legal rights in that respect? Or are you implying that an elderly person has been abused?
2006-06-10 06:07:20 · answer #2 · answered by Owlwings 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Join groups, honey, and get a solid lock on some door. Get a mortice-security-lock and a solid door [a 1hour fire door should do], and a mobile phone to ring the cops.
I'm a carpentar.
2006-06-10 07:53:02 · answer #3 · answered by welcome_to_how_things_will_be 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
YES I DO. BUT DO YOU KNOW THAT THE ELDERLY CAN ALSO ABUSE YOU. I KNOW THIS FIRST HAND.
2006-06-10 13:15:07 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋