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In modern times, guests don't go around pestering other guests to bring out more wine, so unless Mary and Joseph were the hosts of their son Jesus' wedding, why would it make any difference to her if that happened while she was a guest at someone else's wedding celebrations?

2007-12-31 09:57:31 · 11 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

11 answers

The steward ran out of wine. It was a serious social faux-pas. Mary knew of Jesus' power so wanted him to help out. She didn't originate a request for more wine to the steward; she helped him with his problem.

2007-12-31 10:15:34 · answer #1 · answered by Cader and Glyder scrambler 7 · 1 0

At a wedding feast Mary said to Jesus, “They have no wine.” (Suggesting, ‘Do something about it.’) But in firm, yet kindly, words Jesus reminded her of his independence—and performed his first miracle.—John 2:2-11
When Mary told Jesus, “They have no wine,” she was evidently not simply informing Jesus of that fact but suggesting that he do something about it. Jesus used that common idiom to turn down Mary’s subtle suggestion, and his added words, “My hour has not yet come,” help us to see the reason for his doing so. Jesus said to his mother: “What have I to do with you, woman? My hour has not yet come.”—John 2:1-4.
Today, for someone to address his mother as “woman” and to say to her “what have I to do with you?” would likely be considered disrespectful, even insulting. But to lay such charges against Jesus would be to ignore the cultural and linguistic context of the event.
“Used in addressing a woman, it is a term not of reproof or severity, but of endearment or respect.” Other sources agree with this. For example, The Anchor Bible says: “This is not a rebuke, nor an impolite term, nor an indication of a lack of affection . . . It was Jesus’ normal, polite way of addressing women.”

2007-12-31 18:09:44 · answer #2 · answered by conundrum 7 · 2 0

Maybe somewhere Jesus told her He was planning to drink wine at His wedding. Maybe He told her about what would happen at the last supper.

2007-12-31 18:07:11 · answer #3 · answered by Chapter and Verse 7 · 0 3

Because Our Lady was/is very charitable, & wanted to help the families of the married couple.

2007-12-31 18:05:17 · answer #4 · answered by clusium1971 7 · 4 0

Evidently it was a friend of his family as part of the wedding party. Mary knew her son could do something.

2007-12-31 18:05:14 · answer #5 · answered by grnlow 7 · 3 1

Jesus was the oldest son, but Mary had daughters and other sons. I'm sure Mary would have done it for nieces and nephews. The amazing thing is that Mary knew Jesus could handle any situation. Jesus changed the water to wine, because His mother asked Him. Obeying parents is commanded by God. I love what Mary said, to the people in the kitchen, "whatever He tells you to do - do it." Good advice to this very day.

2007-12-31 18:04:49 · answer #6 · answered by Jeancommunicates 7 · 1 3

I've often wondered if Mary, whose marriage was under the pall of gossip about her pregnancy with Jesus, had a greater sensitivity to young brides and their feelings. I had just imagined that she, even though she was willing to be Jesus' mother, still mourned the happy wedding she had dreamed of and didn't want to see that young bride's wedding ruined by embarrassment. Just my thoughts.

2007-12-31 18:04:28 · answer #7 · answered by ? 6 · 2 0

She was a jewish mother and it was a jewish wedding.
That was and perhaps still is typical in the culture.

2007-12-31 18:02:58 · answer #8 · answered by andybosik 5 · 3 1

Beats me.... I hate wine, can't stand champagne, give me good old fruit punch any time!

2007-12-31 18:02:09 · answer #9 · answered by batgirl2good 7 · 2 1

That's why Jesus said..What has this to do with me? I don't think that will work. It wasn't His wedding..or it would have been something to do with HIM.

2007-12-31 18:01:44 · answer #10 · answered by PROBLEM 7 · 4 2

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