Also, in Luke at the lineage of Joseph it says at the end it says, (Adam the son of God.)
I'm assuming this means in the physical sense, for only Jesus is the literal/Spiritual Son of God, Correct?
Lastly, they are two very different lineages.
Your help would be appreciated.
Thanks.
2007-12-30 10:40:51 · 10 answers · asked by Jeremiah Johnson 7 7 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Oh yeah, I forgot, the other one is in, Matthew.
2007-12-30 10:42:04 · update #1
One biological, the other legal... either through some form of adoption, or the "brother-in-law" marriage established in the law. Assertions that either list represent Mary's line are not supported by anything in the text or the culture of the time. If, as some summize, Mary was an only child and her husband became her father's legal heir, then it is again, a LEGAL genealogy of Joseph... case closed. ONLY through the father did the Jews of that time consider lineage.
... Also, the best case to be made from scripture indicates that Mary was a LEVITE, like her relative, Elizabeth, so it would not represent her family line. (Luke 1:5, 36)
2007-12-30 10:43:11 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
The one in the Gospel according to St. Matthew is St. Joseph's lineage, & the one in the Gospel according to St. Luke is the Blessed Virgin Mary's lineage.
2007-12-30 10:44:06 · answer #2 · answered by clusium1971 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Jesus' kin tree is given in 2 places in Scripture: Matthew a million and Luke 3:23-38. Matthew strains the kin tree from Jesus to Abraham. Luke strains the kin tree from Jesus to Adam. in spite of if, there is nice reason to believe that Matthew and Luke are in actuality tracing fullyyt distinctive genealogies. to illustrate, Matthew provides Joseph's father as Jacob (Matthew a million:sixteen), jointly as Luke provides Joseph's father as Heli (Luke 3:23). Matthew strains the line by David's son Solomon (Matthew a million:6), jointly as Luke strains the line by David's son Nathan (Luke 3:31). in actuality, between David and Jesus, the only names the genealogies have in straightforward are Shealtiel and Zerubbabel (Matthew a million:12; Luke 3:27). study greater >>
2016-10-20 11:08:33 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
one is a priesthood lineage, one is a royalty- king of the jews
most of jewish geneology is tied to priesthood authority (they asked jesus Christ about his authority on at least one occasion). Remembering that jesus christ lived by all the laws and that the bible and also other scriptures not currently contained in the bible (its been watered down by the interpolations of man) are legally binding covenants
2007-12-30 10:52:35 · answer #4 · answered by David H 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The lineage that says "son of ...." in Greek says simply "of ...". Joseph was begotten of Jacob, but was "of Heli" -- pertaining to Heli, namely Heli's son-in-law.
2014-02-10 13:27:39 · answer #5 · answered by OPsaltis 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Both writers (at different times in different places) decided to include a genealogy in their story, but there was no collaboration between them - and no reference material either - so each one is quite different. Hardly surprising. They are fabricated stories about a mythical character.
2007-12-30 10:49:48 · answer #6 · answered by youngmoigle 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Surely there are more important things than quibbling over "endless" genealogies!
2007-12-30 10:46:56 · answer #7 · answered by hasse_john 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Imaginary people can have as many lineages as you want them to.
2007-12-30 10:43:34 · answer #8 · answered by Hera Sent Me 6 · 0⤊ 3⤋
which one is Joe Hovahs'?
I'd say neither since modern jews use the mom for proof it's all a hoax
2007-12-30 10:43:43 · answer #9 · answered by voice_of_reason 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋
"as was supposed"..in Matt.
Or in modern terms..."as by Law"...in Legal language.
2007-12-30 10:43:31 · answer #10 · answered by Royal Racer Hell=Grave © 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋