Ever heard of 'adoption?'
2007-12-30 10:22:54
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answer #1
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answered by clusium1971 7
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It should be noted that the Gospel of Matthew sets the precedent for presenting a genealogy of Jesus that goes through Joseph. Incidentally, this genealogy goes through a line (Jehoiakim) that is disqualified for kingship. Therefore, it is not surprising that Luke's genealogical list also gives a genealogy (much different from that given by Matthew), which is supposedly that of Joseph.
The Gospel of Luke provides a variant tradition concerning Jesus' ancestry. In the literal Greek of its genealogical listing "Joseph of the Heli" (Luke 3:23) is just another way of saying "Joseph son of Heli."
Some Christian commentators have claimed that Luke gives Mary's genealogy. Accordingly, it is proposed that Heli is the father-in-law of Joseph, that is, Heli is the name of Mary's father. There is no genealogical record, in either the Jewish Bible or the New Testament, which refers to a man as the son of his father-in-law. There is no verse in the New Testament that says Mary is the daughter of Heli.
To presume that Mary was of Davidic descent presents the problem that Mary could not pass on what she did not possess: (1) Maternal connection does not enter into consideration for succession to the throne of David which is passed on only through a continuous male line: "There shall not be cut off from David a man to sit upon the throne of the house of Israel" (Jeremiah 33:17); (2) Biblically, the right of lineal privilege, that is, kingship and priesthood, are exclusively passed on through the male line. The incident regarding the inheritance of the daughters of Zelophehad (Numbers, chapters 27 and 36) does not apply here since it concerns the transference of physical property and not privileges of lineage.
Considering Luke's genealogical list, neither Joseph nor Mary could claim an inheritance to the throne of David through Heli. Heli and his progeny would be disqualified in regard to the Davidic kingship if he were a descendant of Nathan. Of all the son's of David, God chose Solomon to sit on the throne of Israel (1 Chronicles 29:1, 1 Kings 2:24).
Whether through Joseph or Mary, Jesus is disqualified from the messianic office.
2007-12-30 18:40:40
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answer #2
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answered by Primary Format Of Display 4
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Mary herself was a direct descendant of David.
Matthew and Luke give two distinctly different family lines.
One leads back to Solomon, the other back to Nathanael, both sons of David.
One account identifies Joseph as "begotten" by Jacob, the other identifies Joseph as a son (not begotten) (literally, a son-in-law) to Heli, who was the father of Mary.
Both family lines run back to David. But Mary's is the important one.
2007-12-30 18:30:55
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answer #3
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answered by Bob L 7
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Mary and Joseph both came from the line of David. 2000 years ago they did not have cars so they took wife's that where close to home after a while everyone is related.
2007-12-30 18:24:59
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answer #4
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answered by 777 6
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The family line is in Mathew, but if you want to be technical David is a descendant of Abraham who is a descendant of the Adam who came from God so I guess it all flows from the source.
2007-12-30 18:24:16
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answer #5
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answered by Rational Humanist 7
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If he were a real person he could not claim to be of David's lineage, unless Joseph adopted him, because Mary was not of David's lineage either, and none of them; Jesus, all the Josephs, all the Marys, and disciples, and so-called followers were all fictional character in a fictional story.
2007-12-30 18:27:03
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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Mary was of David's line too.
Luke 3:23-38 lists his genealogy through Mary. She is not mentioned, but Heli was her father and hence Joseph's father-in-law. In listing in those days they only mentioned sons.
2007-12-30 18:23:23
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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