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Why is it that the latin vulgate bibles, differ much in Genesis, about the seed of the woman that crushes the head of the serpent. Every other bible identifies this as a man (Jesus)
but not so the catholic bible, compare:

Douay-Rheims Catholic Bible

I will put enmities between thee and the woman, and thy seed and her seed: she shall crush thy head, and thou shalt lie in wait for her heel.

Genesis 3:15 (King James Version)

And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel

Genesis 3:15 (New International Version)

And I will put enmity
between you and the woman,
and between your offspring and hers;
he will crush your head, and you will strike his heel."

Genesis 3:15 (New American Standard Bible)

And I will put enmity
Between you and the woman,
And between your seed and her seed;
He shall bruise you on the head,
And you shall bruise him on the heel."

2007-12-30 05:25:41 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Only the latin vulgate Douay-rhemis bible seems to think that the seed is a Woman who crushes the serpents head, while every other implies it's a man who crushes the serpents head

Surely It was Jesus who won the victory on the cross for us, and not mary or any
woman. So why does the latin vulgate version think that the victory is won with a woman crushing the serpents head?
When it quite clearly is a man?

This is evidence of how the esoteric vataicna papacy worship a woman and not Jesus as the victor.

This is why they elevate mary to the status of a co-redeemer and tell us she is sinless, which implies god like of course.

This is why innocent catholics get branded as being mary worshippers

as you can see the very Papal elect think the victoy was won through a woman

This is their beleif

This is their mindset
This is their teaching,

this is how they have reweritten Genesis

so why would one choose to beleive this version when it is biblically worng?

2007-12-30 05:30:36 · update #1

The cathloci church appeard some 300 to 400 years after Jesus, it is not the first bible, or the first church, there were already churches in Laodecia, Ephesus and Smyrna

why does it say woman?
Why did pope John paul 2nd ask for mary when he was shot in the head?

Why tell us mary was sinless when she performed animal sacrifices and the bible says ALL have sinned and falen short of the glory of God?

Becuase the papal elect worship mary
or something disguised as mary, why do you have to do the same?

Does Jesus not say come out of Babylon,

does the book of revelations not say, the whole wide world wondered after the beast?

are the biggst religions in the world doing just that through the pope?

2007-12-30 05:33:56 · update #2

Debra:

But given how mary is elevated to a co-redemptress, why do you think they phrase it this way?

every other bible says it's a man

but the organisation which elevates mary says it's a woman that does the crushing

funny isn't it?

2007-12-30 05:39:48 · update #3

Bibs my boy, answer the question

2007-12-30 06:10:09 · update #4

6 answers

15 "She shall crush"... Ipsa, the woman; so divers of the fathers read this place, conformably to the Latin: others read it ipsum, viz., the seed. The sense is the same: for it is by her seed, Jesus Christ, that the woman crushes the serpent's head

2007-12-30 05:36:45 · answer #1 · answered by Debra M. Wishing Peace To All 7 · 1 1

Oh, for heaven's sake. Talk about taking something and running with it to suit your own eisegesis.

God is speaking to the serpent; the enmity He speaks of is between the serpent's seed and hers. Yes, the woman's seed would defeat the serpent. Having just participated with Adam in the fall, Eve is told here that the wrong she did would be rectified -- and so of course the "crushing" would occur through her, done by her seed. The meaning of this passage doesn't change regardless of what pronoun is used -- he, she, OR it.

And how conveniently you have left out other Catholic translations -- the NAB and the RSV Catholic edition, among others -- which use the "he" pronoun. One would think that if this is a nefarious Vatican plot to justify "Mary worship", all approved Catholic translations would be required to use "she".

Try again.

2007-12-30 14:24:20 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 4 0

You seem to be very hung up on this Mary question. She is mentioned a few times in the Gospels. Yet she is almost totally ignored by Protestant Christians. They are silent on her place. The story of the wedding at Cana is a story in the Gospel which is not discussed. There are no wasted words in the Gospel stories. Here is a story that explains her influence with Christ. "It is not my time" He said. She ignored His comment and said to the servants, "Do as He says."

2007-12-30 14:08:54 · answer #3 · answered by Bibs 7 · 2 0

I agree

2007-12-31 21:54:38 · answer #4 · answered by Queen of Pentacles 3 · 0 0

The catholic bible was the first bible and it will be the one that survives. We got our OT from the Jews because we were Jews. The Jews got pissed at us and took some out of their holy books (ask a Jew, this is true).

We are the original church.

2007-12-30 13:30:06 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 3 4

Must keep a note of all this.

2007-12-30 18:21:54 · answer #6 · answered by cheir 7 · 2 1

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