How realistic is it for an average person to have "native" fluency in more than one language? To my observation, most people can have native fluency in their native language. Rarely does it extend to a a second language unless to a second language is closely related to their native language. Of course there are exceptions, but what is your opinion?
2007-12-29 18:44:34 · 11 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
It's always good to define your terms. What I think of as "native" fluency seems pretty obvious- you learn the language like a native, i.e., from infancy. (By the time you get to first grade, you need to learn orthography, but not the language. Most psychologists agree that we can learn a language in this manner up to about the age of 14.
If you learn a language as a baby, then move somewhere else before 14, I believe you can be "native" in both languages. (more if you stay long enough in one linguistic environment to learn the language)
In this country, very few people do that. Might be interesting to see what happens with the children of military people who're stationed in various places around the world, though if the military kids go to English-speaking schools, they might not have the linguistic environment to learn a language.
To answer your question, I think each human has the ability to learn more than one language but few actually have the opportunity to do so.
I don't think it matters how closely the languages are related. If you are a native French speaker, you'll still have to learn Italian the way the rest of us do. And you'll have an accent. Unless, of course, you moved from France to Italy at an early enough age.
2007-12-29 19:14:27 · answer #1 · answered by going_for_baroque 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Native Fluency
2016-11-14 07:38:25 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
In some areas of the world, it's quite common for people to have native-like fluency in more than one language. Generally this happens because more than one language is used in the environment on a regular basis. For example, in Paraguay, many people speak both Spanish and Guaraní, and use them both on a regular basis. In other words, they have two native languages.
If you are talking specifically about having native-like fluency in a second language, you are right that it is somewhat rare. In fact, many linguists will argue that even very proficient speakers of a second language will still have some differences in their language behavior from native speakers.
2007-12-29 18:49:36 · answer #3 · answered by drshorty 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Immersion + application = success at any number of languages.
I have known people to be strong at numerous languages not just two.
Browse myspace.com a little and you will find that the bar for "native fluency" has been lowered considerably in recent years...
2007-12-29 18:54:15 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
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It's definitely possible. I have achieved fluency in English at the age of 35 and in French at 45 and the trick was, as you said yourself, immersion and trying hard. You mustn't be afraid of silly mistakes. They are going to happen and after a 2 second embarrassment they will actually be very funny.
2016-04-01 23:08:23 · answer #5 · answered by Erica 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
of course for an english native speaker it´s gonna sound hard cause they don´t find themselves forced to learn another one but it is not weird at all and it doesnt have anything to do with how alike it is with your native language
2007-12-29 18:49:59 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you're American, it's pretty much unheard of, but not all that uncommon over in places like Europe where you speak a different language for every hour you drive.
2007-12-29 18:47:58 · answer #7 · answered by Chris K 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It really depends on where you are.
What if you're in Switzerland?
You're capable of being immersed in French, Italian, and German. (Sure, they're related, but I mean, they can all be learned with easy access)
In Singapore they have access to an interesting array. Tamil, Mandarin Chinese, Malay, and English.
It depends on location and access to proper education and exposure to the languages.
2007-12-29 18:51:02 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
i think fluency in one language is also a measurement of loyalty to yourself and someone.having two languages lack focus of the trait called loyalty.try to have studies in this hypothesis!
2007-12-29 19:36:48 · answer #9 · answered by katagalugan9 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Americans arent use to the thought, but many countries out there are offiialy bilingual, and it just overall make sense
2007-12-29 20:49:44 · answer #10 · answered by Brian N 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋