is this possible?

Question

I have to pairs of eyeglasses with the SAME prescription. One of them has a thick rimmed frame and the other one is half rimless with metal on the top part.
I can see MUCH MORE CLEARLY when I'm wearing the semi rimless one. Is this even possible with the same prescription? If so, why is this???

Answer 1

Yes, it's very possible.
If the prescription is of any real strength the adjustment and fit of the frame can make a considerable difference to the Rx's performance.
Centering, bowing, pantoscopic angle and vertex distance can all vary between t pairs of glasses which measure identically when each of the four lenses is assessed purely on its own.

Are the poorer glasses better or worse when moved nearer or further from the eyes, or tipped so that the top edge is further out than the bottom edge?
Any variation, for better or worse, would suggest that the issue is principally one of adjustment.

Answer 2

the reason you see more clearly with the semi rimless one is because the one with a rimmed frame kinda puts a obstacle in the way of your view..it takes time to adjust..and you actually arent seeing more clearly its just the fact that with the semi rimless ones,there is nothing obstructing your peripheral view..once you adjust to the others all will be fine.

Answer 3

I'm surprized that the frame makes any difference; are you absolutely certian they are the same perscription; they do get mixed up at the lab sometimes. Try holding up both pairs of glasses, one above the other, and quickly look at something through one pair, then the other, if they are the same perscription, the images should be the same size and not change width/height when you do this.