Is the word Homosexual in the Bible (rebuttle)?

Question

Since I was blocked and cannot view the 'other' person question who asked a similar question I decided to post one myself, 1st off, who agrees with me,(Thats the question)
The Word Homosexual is not mentioned Specifically but the act of Homosexuality is mentioned, It's like this, The Word "trinity" is not mentioned in the Bible but is used by Christians to describe the unity of God, Son, Holy Spirit.
Further more, The Word Bible is not used or mentioned in the Bible but is used to describe the collection of books from Gen. to Rev. As For the Bibles Views on Homosexuality, go to this link ; http://www.carm.org/questions/homosexuality.htm
Now, Who agrees ? No Insulting answer please, Those who do ? well I heard it said that whoever strikes first is an indication that their arguement has run out.

Answer 1

Yes, I block bigots.


The Greek text of the NT does NOT use the specific word homosexual. If you have a Bible that uses the specific word "homosexual," then you need to throw it out and get a new Bible, the translators have taken gross liberties.

The word being translated to "homosexual" in 1 Corithians 6, and 1 Timothy 1 is "arsenokoitai." This word does not appear in Greek writings prior to Paul's use of it in the NT. Paul made the word up!!

Nobody knows for sure what meaning Paul was trying to convey by it's use. If the meaning Paul wanted to convey was homosexual, then he would have used the word "paiderasste", which was the term used at the time for male homosexual. The word "paiderasste" does not appear in the Bible.

"Arsenokoitai" is made up of two parts: "arsen" means "man"; "koitai" means "beds." Literally translated "arsenokoitai" is a "male-bedder." It is interesting to note that during the time of Martin Luther, the word was universally translated as masturbators untill the 20th century.

Male-bedder has also been interpreted to mean a male prostitute. Which seems to me would be much closer to it's meaning than homosexual.

The Greek word being translated as effeminate is "malakoi." The word appears two other times in the NT, both times being translated as "soft." Taken in the context of this passage some believe it to actually mean "soft in morals." Within it's context, that meaning makes more sense than it does as a descriptive of a person's outward mannerisms.

Jesus, himself, never says one word against homosexuality. If it is the grave sin it is made out to be, then you would think that Jesus would have mentioned it.

In fact, Jesus may have confirmed that homosexuals are from birth in Matthew 19:11. The modern meaning of the word eunuch is a castrated male. However, in ancient times it was a broad term that included any man who lacked sexual desire for women for whatever reason. Hence, their use as chamberlains or officers in the Bible.

It should be noted that men who are castrated after puberty do not lose their sex drive, and historically have made untrustworthy chamberlains. In fact, many women of the harem preferred having sex with castrated males because they could not get pregnant by them.

Jesus even states that not everyone can accept this word. If eunuch simply meant a castrated male or a person born with deformed genitals, then why would some not be able to accept this word? If the ancient term "eunuch" did indeed include homosexuals (some surviving ancient Roman literature points to this), then Jesus was proven right, some cannot accept that homosexuality is normal and natural from birth.

BTW: Sodom and Gomorrah were not destroyed because of homosexuality.

The decision to destroy the city of Sodom was made prior to the incident with the angels.

Ezekeiel 16:49-50 tells us exactly why the city of Sodom was destroyed: "Now this was the sin of your sister Sodom: She and her daughters were arrogant, overfed and unconcerned; they did not help the poor and needy. They were haughty and did detestable things before me. Therefore I did away with them as you have seen." There is no mention of homosexuality.

In Matthew 10:14-15 & Luke 10:7-16, Jesus implies that the sin of the people of Sodom was inhospitality to strangers.

Jude 1:7 talks about the sin of Sodom as "going after strange flesh." That would seem to me to be talking about bestiality, the angels were not human. Would angels even be confined to definitions of male or female sexual characteristics?

The other problem with saying that this story is about homosexuality is that Lot offers his two daughters to the mob. Lot lived in Sodom and would have certainly known if the men in the mob were homosexual. Why would he even offer his two daughters to a mob of homosexuals? If the mob's intentions were homosexual in nature, then why didn't Lot offer the mob his two future son-in-laws?

Romans 1:26-27 is not speaking about people with a homosexual orientation. It is speaking specifically about heterosexual men and women who go against their own sexual orientation.

The key word here is "exchanges." That implies that the men and women being talked about had known something different previously. They had previously known the truth about God, then exchanged him for what they knew to be a lie, (what went against their own nature.) They had previously been heterosexual, and again exchanged it for what goes against their own nature.

Answer 2

I have had many argument with many Christians on the subject
of homosexuals and search in the Bible if God have actually
mentioned anything of man with man,only what I found in Genesis
(1)Adam & Eve was that God said be fruit full and multiply,now as you read Gods first creation of life of Adam & Eve baring many children of sons and daughters spread through the land
multiplying wouldn't this be considering incest ? so if ? it's said
that incest & homosexuality is a abomination I believe this contradicts Gods creation of Adam & Eve

(2) It was acceptable during early Roman Empire before the Bible was written that many Roman Empirors have many sexual men and women slaves as well any one can have if they wished,homosexuality was common way of life then
until 300 years later when Saint Augusta of the Roman Catholic Church written the laws for sexual behaver morals
and when Constantine became Christian and Empiror of Rome him as many other athoritys have written the Bible what scriptures that they have accepted to be in the Bible
these are proven documented from scrolls found and kept hidden
now here's a test I give to many Christian that I have found
hyprocritical that they can't give a direct answer to,I ask them
people who are born with both sex is this a abomination ?
the common reply is it's Satan doing or and I ask what if you where standing at a street corner waiting for the traffic light to change and you for see a gay man crossing the street that he was going to be hit by a speeding car and you have the chance to pull him out of the way to save him would you ?
common reply is they start quoting Bible scriptures hidding to avoid the question or I ask them if it was you that was going to be hit by the car and a gay man pull you away to safety are you going to turn gay the common reply a dirty look no answer or avoiding the question with Bible scriptures

the point is the Bible is written for want man wants God to say
and that homophia is B.S. what people do behind there bed room door is there business you are not forced to be there and most of all people are ignorent

p.s sorry for the misspelling I'm in a rush

Answer 3

You are right, the Bible doesn't actually say the word homosexual, but the Lord didn't use our modern day words as we do. However, God did put it so plain that even a child could understand that he was against a man lying with another man in a sexual way.

Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination. ( Leviticus18:22 )

God is the same yesterday, today , and forever. He hasn't changed his mind. He said that the sin of man with another man is an abomination to him. That means it is a sin today!

He also so said in ( Leviticus 20:13)-- If a man also lie with mankind, as he lieth with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination: they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall be upon them.

God destroyed Sodom because of this sin. You may read it for yourself in the Bible: Genesis 19: 1 -11

It really doesn't matter what name is put on this sin, we can put a nice name like gay, homosexual, or anything else, but it is still an abomination to God.

Answer 4

I agree with you that the word homosexual is not in the Bible. As for the other part, about the CONCEPT of homosexuality as we know it today, I disagree 100%. The leviticus laws forbidding homosexuality in context outlawed the pagan rituals of temple homosexual prostitution. To extend this to what we call homosexuality today, especially between monogamous loving couples, goes FAR beyond the original intent of those prohibitions, at least in my opinion.

As for the writings of Paul, those are a different matter entirely. One of the 2 main passages there that mention the concept is a greek word that is used in a list of rules, and has changed in meaning over time to the current view that is homosexual 'offender', whatever that means. To me that doesn't mean homosexual, but ADDS offender to it. If it simply meant homosexual, it would say THAT, and not offender.

As for the one about turning homosexuals over to wickedness, that is a little more difficult to understand. I have heard the explanations of that, but it doesn't sound as simple as the 'explanations' of the gay-rights people. Being gay, I WANT to believe them, but the explanations don't logically wash with me yet.

Thanks for the interesting question!

Answer 5

For the record, although the word "trinity" is not in the Bible, the concept is not there either. There is not a single verse that says the Father, Son, and the holy spirit are co-equal, co-eternal, and that they make up a single God. The trinity was invented by the Catholic Church in the 4th century. As A Catholic Dictionary notes: “The third Person was asserted at a Council of Alexandria in 362 . . . and finally by the Council of Constantinople of 381.”

As for homosexuality, the word is not in the Bible, but the concept is there. At 1 Cor. 6:9, 10, it says: "Do you not know that unrighteous persons will not inherit God’s kingdom? Do not be misled. Neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor men kept for unnatural purposes, nor men who lie with men,... will inherit God’s kingdom."

Ro. 1:26, 27: "That is why God gave them up to disgraceful sexual appetites, for both their females changed the natural use of themselves into one contrary to nature; and likewise even the males left the natural use of the female and became violently inflamed in their lust toward one another, males with males, working what is obscene and receiving in themselves the full recompense, which was due for their error. Although these know full well the righteous decree of God, that those practicing such things are deserving of death, they not only keep on doing them but also consent with those practicing them."

What the Bible says on homosexuality is very clear.

Answer 6

Sure it does, if you want to listen to the mistranslations of King James.

The word in Hebrew is Catamite. Which is not a gay person, rather a MALE prostitute. God takes issue with prostition, as it leads to adultery. And, adultery leads to break up of the homes and family. That's the reason it's in the 10 Commandments.

People can say what they want about gay people. You can site this verse and that verse until the cows come home. The one thing that EVERYONE fails to notice is that neither God directly (via the 10 Commandments) nor Jesus himself ever touched on the topic. I, for one, find that more complelling than any ''letter'' written that has been made out to be God's word.

I personally don't understand why Christians target gay and lesbian people as the worse sin ever. Lies are made about how they are trying to convert people to being gay, or teaching our children to be gay, or gay people wanting ''special rights'' or to take over the world with a ''gay agenda''. It's all a bunch of nonsense.

As Christians, we have a responsibility to love everyone. Treat everyone with dignity and respect. To accept people for how they are, and simply show through our words and actions the love and peace that dwells within us through Jesus Christ. Jesus never turned anyone away, nor did he belittle them by pointing out their ''flaws''.

Even roughly 2000 yrs after Jesus paid the ultimate sacrifice, we still aren't getting the message right. It's so sad, it hurts.

Answer 7

Carm is not a good source for anything. They may get a few things right, but it doesn't mean they know what they're talking about with everything.

However I do agree with you that the exact word "homosexual" is not used in the bible, but other terms/phrases regarding homosexuality are used.


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BTW, she blocked me too just because I said the word homosexual isn't in the bible but other terms for homosexuals are.

Her profile says she blocks bigots, but I guess you can't block yourself. What kind of hypocritical *blank* is she that she is herself a bigot for blocking people whos beliefs aren't what she believes?

I have no respect for her.

Answer 8

Paul doesn't coin the label homosexual but the homosexual act leaves no doubt in anyone's mind about what a homosexual is. That's very interesting that an Apostle would conjure up such an image.

Answer 9

Yes, I was blocked after answering the question as well. Thank you for bringing this to the attention of the community.

Effeminate.

Greek: malakovß

1 Corinthians 6:9 - Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind,

Definition
soft, soft to the touch
metaph. in a bad sense
effeminate
of a catamite
of a boy kept for homosexual relations with a man
of a male who submits his body to unnatural lewdness
of a male prostitute

Answer 10

Interesting that some one choose to block you rather then let you supply answers to their questions. you must have caused them to actually have to think!
I like your approach the question of whats in the Bible. The word Homosexual likely was not used or did not exist in the original Greek or Hebrew texts.

Answer 11

The only problem I have with your argument is that modern translations of the Bible are highly flawed and contrived. There is a tonne of evidence to support the idea that the original texts did not contain any of those passages. I am not fluent in Aramaic but I have read quite a bit of information on the subject.