eg, transmitting a song and all radios tuned into 500mhz through to 800mhz will pick it up....??
I understand how to transmit 1 frequency with the oscillator.
2007-12-27 17:33:02 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
i get this idea from a jamming device, which can broadcast white noise across a range of channels.
2007-12-27 18:18:50 · update #1
what about using an AM signal over many frequencies? would that work to send 1 signal to lots of different channels?
2007-12-28 10:16:04 · update #2
Well, you are trying to defeat the very principal of radio, which is to have multiple independant channels within a band.
But, in theory you can create a single carrier wave from the sum of the indivual channel frequences. Modulate & brodcast and it should show up on the entire band, albiet at a somewhat diminished power per channel, plus some losses from the brodcast antenna mismatch.
2007-12-27 18:03:41 · answer #1 · answered by Phoenix Quill 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
White noise has frequency components covering a wide range. So you could generate white noise and amplify it using broadband amplifiers. However, I don't see how you could modulate it (i.e. put the music or voice on it). Possibly you could use on/off modulation and recover the modulation digitally? Question is, what would you gain?
2007-12-28 04:51:41 · answer #2 · answered by Numbat 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋