Well saying they were born side-by-side is a bit of a stretch, but I feel like a perfect explanation is:
When one team wins, another team has to lose.
2007-12-27 17:00:43
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answer #1
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answered by Fibonacci01123 3
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Slavery was born long before the United States became a country. The drafters of the Declaration of Independence argued over the subject of slavery. They ended up allowing slavery in order to get it ratified by the Continental Congress. The Constitution didn't outlaw slavery for the same reason.
If they hadn't compromised on the slavery issue, we might not have gotten our independence at all.
2007-12-28 00:35:54
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answer #2
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answered by Pens 6
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No they weren't. Slavery arrived in the colonies in the 1600's. When America won its freedom, ie. the US, theoretically US slavery was born, because the day before it was British slavery. There you go! Give that to your teacher.
2007-12-28 12:23:43
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answer #3
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answered by La Belle Dame Sans Merci 6
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I don't believe your right, your putting blame here in America when slavery existed in Europe and other countries long before it was established here in the States.
Look at the caste system in all other countries, then England and France first, then go to India and the far East and, Japan and, don't forget their own countrymen in Africa.
Quit putting the blame on America.
2007-12-28 05:33:28
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answer #4
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answered by cowboydoc 7
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oh they must mean about the year 1619 when the Virginian House of burgueses was created, the first one in the colonies, and the same year portuguese ships brought the first black slaves to america.
2007-12-28 03:44:27
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answer #5
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answered by americanista 3
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