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2007-12-27 07:14:05 · 4 answers · asked by Alexander 6 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

4 answers

Suppose (x+1)² = x² + 2x. Then x² + 2x + 1 = x² + 2x, thus 0 = 1. Multiplying both sides by π - (x+1)³, we see that 0 = π - (x+1)³, thus (x+1)³ = π. Q.E.D.

Or more simply, we could simply observe that since the antecedent is never true, the conditional is vacuously true.

2007-12-27 07:27:44 · answer #1 · answered by Pascal 7 · 9 0

Pascal's answer is right. Another way to say it is: Suppose p and q are statements and p is false. Then the statement "p implies q" must be true. Here is the proof:

If "p implies q" is not true, then it must be the case
that p is true and q is false. But p is not true. Therefore
"p implies q" must be true after all.

Now, replace p by your first (false) equation and q by your second (false) equation.

2007-12-27 15:03:39 · answer #2 · answered by Mr Magus 2 · 2 0

(x+1)² = x² + 2x

therefore,

(x+1)³ = π

2007-12-27 07:18:33 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 4

That is impossible, becuase (x+1)² never equals x²+2x

2007-12-27 07:20:37 · answer #4 · answered by Ari R 3 · 2 2

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