Suppose (x+1)² = x² + 2x. Then x² + 2x + 1 = x² + 2x, thus 0 = 1. Multiplying both sides by π - (x+1)³, we see that 0 = π - (x+1)³, thus (x+1)³ = π. Q.E.D.
Or more simply, we could simply observe that since the antecedent is never true, the conditional is vacuously true.
2007-12-27 07:27:44
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answer #1
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answered by Pascal 7
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Pascal's answer is right. Another way to say it is: Suppose p and q are statements and p is false. Then the statement "p implies q" must be true. Here is the proof:
If "p implies q" is not true, then it must be the case
that p is true and q is false. But p is not true. Therefore
"p implies q" must be true after all.
Now, replace p by your first (false) equation and q by your second (false) equation.
2007-12-27 15:03:39
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answer #2
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answered by Mr Magus 2
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(x+1)² = x² + 2x
therefore,
(x+1)³ = Ï
2007-12-27 07:18:33
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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That is impossible, becuase (x+1)² never equals x²+2x
2007-12-27 07:20:37
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answer #4
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answered by Ari R 3
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