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I'm a Christian and my husband is Muslim. I've been told that the proof that Muhammad is the last prophet is in several scriptures in the bible. It is supossed to be said that Jesus told his desciples that after Him would come another from the line of Kedar and will bring with him a new law. Kedar was a son of Ismael and I know Muslims believe Muhammad is from that line. Ismael is also supossed to be from the land of Arabia. Can someone please enlighten me?

2007-12-26 15:26:05 · 30 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

30 answers

THE BIBLE FORETELLS MUHAMMAD’S WORK?

Among other arguments that Muslim scribes use to prove the inspiration of the Quran is that Muhammad and his work were foretold in the Bible. According to a footnote on Sura 46:10, Ali, (n.4783) “in the Quran and its Prophet [is found] a true confirmation of the previous scriptures . . . Islam [being] a fulfillment of the revelation of Moses himself! (See Deut. XVIII, 18-19)”

But how could that be? At Mount Sinai Jehovah told Moses: “I will raise them up a prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee; and I will put my words in his mouth, and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him. And it shall come to pass, that whosoever will not hearken unto my words which he shall speak in my name, I will require it of him.”—Deut. 18:15-19, AS.

Certainly it cannot be justly argued that Muhammad, who was a descendant of Ishmael, was of Moses’ brothers. Nor did Muhammad speak in the name of Jehovah God, as did Moses. The fact is that centuries before Muhammad was born the apostle Peter, in addressing the bona fide brothers of Moses, the Jews, applied this text to Christ Jesus, and the facts show that this prophecy does apply to him.—Acts 3:20-23.

Another prophecy which Muslim scribes apply to Muhammad is that of Jesus regarding the coming of a “helper” or “comforter”. Says Ali, in his footnote comment on Sura 3:81: “In the New Testament as it now exists Muhammad is foretold in the Gospel of St. John 14:16; 15:26; and 16:7. The future Comforter cannot be the Holy Spirit as understood by Christians, because the Holy Spirit already was present, helping and guiding Jesus.”

However, note that Jesus said that his going away would make his apostles orphans, but not for long, as the “spirit of truth”, the paraclete, the “helper” or “comforter”, was to come. He further told them that they would be baptized with this spirit of truth “not many days after this” and that they were to remain in Jerusalem until this spirit came. Surely all these promises and commands would not make sense if the apostles were to wait six centuries until Muhammad came!

True, the holy spirit was upon Jesus, but it is very apparent that, until it was given to them at Pentecost, without Jesus his apostles were very much like lost children. They went back to their fishing business; they presumed to elect an apostle to take the place of Judas; they had no message for the Jews. With the spirit’s outpouring at Pentecost all this changed! From then on the apostles confidently went forward with the work of preaching, making converts by the thousands. (John 21:3; Acts 1:4, 5, 15-26; 2:32-36, 41; 4:4) Clearly such misapplication of Scripture cannot prove the divine origin of the Quran!

2007-12-26 15:38:09 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 3 3

The bible was not written 300 years after Jesus, his apostles wrote the bible and not one word has been changed. Your husband is wrong that is not in the bible. The one that would come after Jesus would be the comforter the Holy Spirit. It is sad you should not be with a Muslim unless he converts, you are unevenly yoked, you should only have married another christian. The Koran is a book of twisted lies. They get their religion from the Jews just like the Christians do. Ask you husband if Jesus was the Son of God, if he says no then he is calling Jesus a liar, and prophets don't lie. Jesus said I and my Father are one. Jesus said before Abraham was I am,( I am) is one of God's names.

2007-12-26 16:19:11 · answer #2 · answered by hexa 6 · 1 1

The last prophet in the Bible is Malachi or Mal'achi (מַלְאָכִי "My messenger/angel", see malakh, Standard Hebrew Malʾaḫi, Tiberian Hebrew Malʾāḵî) was a prophet in the Bible, the Christian Old Testament and Jewish Tanakh.

He was the last of the minor prophets, and the writer of the Book of Malachi, the last book of the Old Testament canon (Mal. 4:4, 5, 6) Christian editions, and is the last book of the Neviim (prophets) section in the Jewish Tanakh.

There is a possibility that your husband may be referring to the Gnostic Gospels, which helped develop Islam in those areas of the Mediterranean and Arab world. (Be it the Syrian-Egyptian School of Gnosticism or the Persian Gnostic School - Manicheanism and Mandaeanism).

In the Catholic Canon of New testament writings you will find at least two references that your husband may be referring to. After the Resurrection of Jesus and He mentions the one to follow Him as The Comforter - because the Apostles will be as orphans - hiding & afraid. That would be the Holy Spirit. The other possibility is when John the Baptist is crying out in the desert, paving the way for the one to follow -- that is in reference to Jesus. After Jesus is baptized by John and starts His public ministry, John says that Jesus was the one he was referring to come after greater than I, unworthy to tie His sandal.

I hope that helps. God Bless You -- Merry Christmas/Happy New Year to you & yours!!!

2007-12-26 18:50:20 · answer #3 · answered by Andy K 6 · 0 1

You need to go right back to Abram. God called him out of the Ur of the chaldeans. This happened when he was 75 years old. He and his wife including his nephew Lot left there land and travelled to the land of Canaan the promised land. During this journey God promised Abram that he would give him a son as he did not have any children. After 30 more years had past when he was really old and his wife Saria was well past her child bearing age could not wait any longer. So his wife decided to arrange to have a son but with her maid servant. She was not of the blood line of Abram or his wife's either. So in time a son was born and his name was Ishmeal. You see the bible teaches us in the OT that this was not the son God gave but something from mans efforts. It says in the NT, she was from a bond woman and not a free woman. This was the start of the Arab nation, and much later in direct opposition to God, the Muslim faith was created.
But what you must bear in mind that both Christian and Arab have the same father. One is accounted for righteousness and the other not.

2007-12-26 15:38:45 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1 2

Jesus was referring to the Holy Spirit. The Bible does not refer to "the line of Kedar". Muhammad felt entitled to take liberties with the Bible and change things. We are not obligated to accept his changes.

2007-12-26 15:39:55 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 3 3

You are getting confused apparently between the Koran and the Bible. I'm not aware of any such passage in the Christian Bible. I'm no theologian or scholar, but I have read the Bible completely through multiple times in the past 30 some years and I have absolutely no recollection of such a passage. Can you provide the book, chapter and, hopefully, verse, I'll read it and try to answer your question better. Stick with Jesus, after all, He is the way, the truth and the life.

2007-12-26 15:34:08 · answer #6 · answered by Sunny 5 · 3 4

All I know, is that Jesus is mentioned in the Koran even more times than Muhammad. The similarities between the two religions are so numerous, that I can't understand the fighting. I'm an Atheist, but in order to give an educated opinion I had to read both books, and so far that's what I interpreted.

2007-12-26 15:45:59 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 4

I have never heard of this scripture, and I've spent 5 hours a week studying the Bible for the past 25 years...

Even if such a scripture exists, there are many Muslim beliefs that directly contradict scriptures in the Bible to make the connection invalid.

2007-12-26 15:31:58 · answer #8 · answered by Epitome_inc 4 · 4 4

Since Ishmael is outside of the House of Israel, I find it hard to believe that anything regarding him or his seed would have anything to do with the Lord's Covenant People. It is through the House of Jacob, son of Isaac, son of Abraham, that God would bless the earth.

That family line will not be devoured or replaced as God's covenant people. The God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob will never identify his people outside that line. Anyone outside that family line is considered heathen, as I understand it. That might not sit well with some people, but that's what I understand.

As for the "last" prophet, the existence of prophets (God's authorized servants according to his Holy Priesthood) will never cease. Jesus has authorized, living prophets and apostles today.

2007-12-26 15:36:24 · answer #9 · answered by Atom 4 · 2 3

That is NOT in the Bible -- the only "another" to come after Jesus was the Holy Spirit.

Neither Islam nor Mohammed are mentioned in the bible, except perhaps where it says that there will be many false prophets.

Read the Bible so you will know what it says, and if you want to look something in particular up, look it up on www.biblegateway.com

2007-12-26 15:38:28 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 4 3

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