Copyright, 1901
By THOMAS NELSON & SONS
COPYRIGHT, 1929
BY INTERNATIONAL COUNCIL OF RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
TO INSURE PURITY OF TEXT
Printed and distributed by WATCHER BIBLE AND TRACT, INC
117 ADAMS ST., BROOKLYN, N. Y., U.S.A.
PRINTED IN THE UNITED STATES OF AMERICA
Says:
John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
I took the following from Watchtower Bible site which it says:
John 1:1
In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god.
Why has the a added and the Capital G changed to a little g?
2007-12-26 07:08:21 · 10 answers · asked by Pooky 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
so they just change their bible however they like?
2007-12-26 07:21:31 · update #1
Jehovah's Witnesses if the first religion to change the Gospel in the Bible to support a dogma...there is no salvation in a Kingdom Hall..Rev. tells us what god thinks about those who change the Bible...they can't have it both ways.
2007-12-26 13:19:17 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 4⤋
The New World Translation rendering of John 1:1 was due to:
(1)An anarticular theos (a theos without the article) which is sandwiched between two articular occurrences.
(2)Context. The Word was "with" ho theos, the God.
(3)What the rest of the Bible says about Jesus.
2007-12-27 01:05:25 · answer #2 · answered by keiichi 6 · 3⤊ 1⤋
As publishers of various bibles,
They also printed the KJV, the Diaglott, The Living Bible
and several others.
Each bible they print they print as the translators wrote it.
they printed the Nelson bible as the translators wrote it.
As publishers of the NWT, they printed that bible as the translators wrote it.
Notice how John 1:1 was translated into Coptic (an Egyptian diaglet) 100 years after John wrote his Gospel:
http://copticjohn.bravehost.com/index.html
A Fairly Literal English Translation of the Coptic Text:
1 In the beginning the Word existed. The Word was in the presence of God, and the Word was a god.
Notice the word for word translation found in the Emphatic Diaglott: "a god was the Word"
http://www.thedcl.org/bible/diaglott-nt/ed-john.pdf
Notice what the NAB states as to the meaning of John 1:1
http://www.nccbuscc.org/nab/bible/john/john1.htm
"Was God: lack of a definite article with "God" in Greek signifies predication rather than identification."
"The Word was a god" denotes quality not identification.
John is not telling us Jesus is God, but that Jesus is like God.
=====
Why the difference? It's called honesty and truth in quotations. Something we all can learn.
.
2007-12-26 15:59:06 · answer #3 · answered by TeeM 7 · 6⤊ 3⤋
And you quibble about that???Edit~~~ There is your indisputable answer in (achung's )clear answer ,one we have know for many years and are taught to understand through years of instruction from a organization used by Jesus ,Gods son in dispersing spiritual food at the proper time .
2007-12-26 19:11:39 · answer #4 · answered by hunter 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Yes
2007-12-26 16:51:49 · answer #5 · answered by LineDancer 7 · 6⤊ 2⤋
Friend don't waist your time with this people, they don't let me write the link you need to see for all your questions. tell this people to see my profile and read the link about JW.
They have no idea about their predictions history and lies. The Spirit of God won't let me be quiet.
SEE THE LINK IN MY PROFILE
2007-12-26 20:30:34 · answer #6 · answered by Antonio G 1 · 2⤊ 2⤋
It was first translated to "Word was a god" so why did they change it to "Word was God"?
Coptic 300 AD
"Word was a god"
Harwood, 1768,
"and was himself a divine person"
Newcome, 1808,
"and the word was a god"
Thompson, 1829,
"the Logos was a god
Goodspeed, 1939,
"the Word was divine
Torrey, 1947
"the Word was god
New English, 1961
"what God was,the Word was"
Moffatt, 1972,
"the Logos was divine
Reijnier Rooleeuw, 1694,
"and the Word was a god"
Hermann Heinfetter, 1863,
[A]s a god the Command was"
Abner Kneeland, 1822
"The Word was a God"
Leicester Ambrose, 1879,
"And the logos was a god"
Charles A.L. Totten, 1900,
"the Word was Deistic [=The Word was Godly]
J.N. Jannaris, 1901
[A]nd was a god"
George William Horner, 1911,
[A]nd (a) God was the word"
Ernest Findlay Scott, 1932,
[A]nd the Word was of divine nature"
Maximilian Zerwich S.J./Mary Grosvenor, 1974,
"The Word was divine"
Siegfried Schulz, 1975,
"And a god (or, of a divine kind) was the Word"
Translator's NT, 1973
"The Word was with God and shared his nature
Barclay, 1976,
"the nature of the Word was the same as the nature of God"
Schneider, 1978,
"and godlike sort was the Logos
Schonfield, 1985
"the Word was divine
Madsen, 1994
"the Word was a divine Being"
Becker, 1979
"ein Gott war das Logos" [a God/god was the Logos/logos]
Stage, 1907
"Das Wort war selbst gttlichen Wesens" [The Word/word was itself a divine Being/being].
Bhmer, 1910
"Es war fest mit Gott verbunden, ja selbst gttlichen Wesens" [It was strongly linked to God, yes itself divine Being/being]
Thimme, 1919
"Gott von Art war das Wort" [God of Kind/kind was the Word/word]
Baumgarten et al, 1920
"Gott (von Art) war der Logos" [God (of Kind/kind) was the Logos/logos]
Holzmann, 1926
"ein Gott war der Gedanke" [a God/god was the Thought/thought]
Rittenlmeyer, 1938
"selbst ein Gott war das Wort" [itself a God/god was the Word/word]
Lyder Brun (Norw. professor of NT theology) 1945
"Ordet var av guddomsart" [the Word was of divine kind]
Pfaefflin, 1949
"war von gttlicher Wucht [was of divine Kind/kind]
Albrecht, 1957
"gttlichen Wesen hatte das Wort" [godlike Being/being had the Word/word]
Smit, 1960
"verdensordet var et guddommelig vesen" [the word of the world was a divine being]
Menge, 1961
"Gott (= gttlichen Wesens) war das Wort"[God(=godlike Being/being) was the Word/word)
Haenchen, 1980
"Gott (von Art) war der Logos" [God (of Kind/kind) was the Logos/logos]
Die Bibel in heutigem Deutsch, 1982
"r war bei Gott und in allem Gott gleich"[He was with God and in all like God]
Haenchen (tr. By R. Funk) 1984
"divine (of the category divinity)was the Logos"
Schultz, 1987
"ein Gott (oder: Gott von Art) war das Wort" [a God/god (or: God/god of Kind/kind) was the Word/word].
William Temple, Archbishop of York, 1933
"And the Word was divine."
Greek Orthodox /Arabic translation, 1983,
the word was with Allah[God] and the word was a god"
Ervin Edward Stringfellow (Prof. of NT Language and Literature/Drake University, 1943,
"And the Word was Divine"
Robert Harvey, D.D., 1931
"and the Logos was divine (a divine being)"
2007-12-26 16:30:09 · answer #7 · answered by VMO 4 · 4⤊ 3⤋
Several bibles translate John 1:1 in a manner compatible with the phrase "the Word was a god". The bible plainly teaches that Jesus is a god (John 1:1; Isaiah 9:6; John 1:18). This biblical concept does not trouble any Christian, whether he be trinitarian or nontrinitarian. Yet, for centuries, trinitarians have tended to reject any alternate translation of John 1:1.
Trinitarians must recognize that it was three or four hundred years after Christ's impalement that a minority of self-described "Christians" decided that Jesus was the only god, God Almighty (Jehovah). By the time the King James Version translated John 1:1 into English as "the Word was God", the year was 1611. How interesting it would be to see a translation from Greek (which contained no indefinite article "a") into English (with its indefinite articles "a", "an") performed by early Christians, perhaps the children or grandchildren of those who walked with the apostles!
We do have such a translation, but into the Coptic language, which uses indefinite articles as English does. How do the Coptic manuscripts word John 1:1?
"...and the Word was a God."
http://copticjohn.com/
http://jehovah.to/exe/translation/coptic.pdf
http://depts.washington.edu/cartah/text_archive/coptic/coptjohn.shtml
The bible makes perfect sense when it is being read honestly. John 1:1 is perfectly harmonious with the rest of the bible, which teaches plainly that Jesus Christ the Son is a distinct person from Jehovah God the Father. The Scriptures teach that the Almighty created Jesus as His firstborn son.
(Colossians 1:15) the firstborn of all creation
(Mark 10:18) Jesus said to him: 'Why do you call me good? Nobody is good, except one, God.
(Revelation 3:14) the Amen says, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation by God
(Philippians 2:5-6) Christ Jesus, who, although he was existing in God's form, gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God
(John 8:42) Neither have I come of my own initiative at all, but that One sent me forth
(John 12:49) I have not spoken out of my own impulse, but the Father himself who sent me has given me a commandment as to what to tell and what to speak
(John 14:28) I am going my way to the Father, because the Father is greater than I am
(1 Corinthians 15:28) But when all things will have been subjected to him, then the Son himself will also subject himself to the One who subjected all things to him
(Matthew 20:23) this sitting down at my right hand and at my left is not mine to give, but it belongs to those for whom it has been prepared by my Father
(1 Corinthians 11:3) I want you to know that the head of every man is the Christ; ...in turn the head of the Christ is God
(John 20:17) I am ascending to my Father and your Father and to my God and your God.
(Deuteronomy 6:4) Jehovah our God is one Jehovah
(1 Corinthians 8:4-6) There is no God but one. For even though there are those who are called "gods," whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many "gods" and many "lords," there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him
Thanks again for an opportunity to share what the bible actually says about the distinct persons of Jesus Christ the Son and Jehovah God the Father!
Learn more!
http://watchtower.org/e/ti/index.htm?article=article_05.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/20050422/
http://watchtower.org/e/20020515/
http://watchtower.org/e/rq/index.htm?article=article_03.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/lmn/index.htm?article=article_04.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/pr/index.htm?article=article_04.htm
Incidentally, the bible quite explicitly calls Jesus a "god"; human judges, angels, and even Satan are also referred to as "gods" in the bible (see below). Yet Jehovah is "the one true God" in the sense that He has no rival among any of these. Jesus the Son is clearly no rival to God the Father!
(Psalm 86:8,10) There is none like you among the gods, O Jehovah... You are God, you alone.
(1 Corinthians 8:4-6) There is no God but one. For even though there are those who are called "gods," whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many "gods" and many "lords," there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him
(Exodus 22:20) One who sacrifices to any gods but Jehovah alone is to be devoted to destruction.
The bible speaks of honoring Christ Jesus and doing obeisance to him, but only Jehovah the Father merits worshipful "exclusive devotion".
(Exodus 20:2,5) I am Jehovah your God... I Jehovah your God am a God exacting exclusive devotion
(Philippians 2:5,6) Christ Jesus, who, although he was existing in God’s form, gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God
The bible does not use the term "god" only in reference to Almighty Jehovah.
(1 Corinthians 8:5) there are those who are called “gods,” whether in heaven or on earth
Jesus as "a god": (John 1:1; Isaiah 9:6; John 1:18)
Angels as 'gods': (Psalm 82:1)
Satan as 'a god': (2 Corinthians 4:4)
Human judges as "gods": (Psalm 82:6-8) “I myself have said, ‘You are gods, And all of you are sons of the Most High. Surely you will die just as men do... Do rise up, O God, do judge the earth
2007-12-27 02:07:05 · answer #8 · answered by achtung_heiss 7 · 3⤊ 1⤋
This has been changed to support the Watchtower Society's doctrines. : )
2007-12-26 15:13:25 · answer #9 · answered by SeeTheLight 7 · 4⤊ 6⤋
They ran out of big g's.
2007-12-26 15:24:09 · answer #10 · answered by Just Me 5 · 1⤊ 4⤋