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A brief look at polygamy in the Old Testament:

Let us look at some of the verses from the Old Testament that allow polygamy:

In Exodus 21:10, a man can marry an infinite amount of women without any limits to how many he can marry.

In 2 Samuel 5:13; 1 Chronicles 3:1-9, 14:3, King David had six wives and numerous concubines.

In 1 Kings 11:3, King Solomon had 700 wives and 300 concubines.

In 2 Chronicles 11:21, King Solomon's son Rehoboam had 18 wives and 60 concubines.

In Deuteronomy 21:15 "If a man has two wives, and he loves one but not the other, and both bear him sons...."

There are a lot more verses from the Old Testament that allow polygamy, but I think that the above are sufficient enough to prove my point.

Jesus said: "Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law (the Old Testament) or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke or a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law (the Old Testament) until everything is accomplished. (Matthew 5:17-18)"

Christians always say as an excuse "Oh this law doesn't exist in the New Testament, it is only the Old Testament." Well, according to Matthew 5:17-18 above, we clearly see that Jesus honored the Old Testament, and forces Christians to follow the unmodified laws of it that have not been replaced by newer ones in the New Testament. The Old Testament as we clearly see above does indeed allow polygamy without a shadow of a doubt !!.

There is not a single verse from the New Testament that prohibits polygamy.

2007-12-26 03:14:27 · 13 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

13 answers

According to Genesis 16:3, Abraham married Hagar with Sarah's knowledge and permission.

While Islam recognizes and accepts Hagar as a wife of Abraham, Judaism and Christianity do not.

2007-12-26 03:28:43 · answer #1 · answered by Shafeeqah 5 · 3 1

Well there is 1 or 2. A Bishop can be the husband of only one wife. Other than that, you are correct. The Europeans banned that practice. The USA made a law against polygamy a few years before 1900 maybe 1880 or something. The practice of polygamy by a few fundamentalist Mormons don't do it the way it was done in the old testament. The first wife gave another wife or concubine to her husband. No the funny mentalist take a wife or wives from one husband and give her to another. They also force young women to become the wife of a man. In the old testament, only a few of the most righteous Prophets lived the law. By the way Ishmael, brother of Isaac started the Arab race who still practice polygamy. What was left of the 10 tribes abandoned it before Christ arrived and it was not too popular although not condemned by the New Testament.

2007-12-26 03:28:18 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

When asked about divorce, Jesus admitted that God gave to Moses (and the Jewish nation), the LAW, because of the sinful hearts of man, and these laws were to bring law to sin.

Every time someone married multiple times, in the Old Testament, it got bad, sooner than later . . . maybe the Mosaic Law allows it . . . maybe it doesn't . . .

I only want one wife . . .

that is trouble enough . . .

2007-12-26 03:38:45 · answer #3 · answered by Clark H 4 · 1 1

Actually, Jesus said...

Matthew 19:3-6 “Did you not read that he who created them from [the] beginning made them male and female and said, ‘For this reason a man will leave his father and his mother and will stick to his wife, and the two will be one flesh’? So that they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore, what God has yoked together let no man put apart.””

Before making the comments quoted above, Jesus drew on Genesis 2:24, saying: “A man will leave his father and his mother and will stick to his wife, and the two will be one flesh.” (Matt. 19:5) God gave Adam just one wife. The pattern was that the TWO, not three or four, would be one flesh. Plainly Jesus was directing his followers to return to God’s original way for human marriage, a man’s having only one living wife. Under inspiration the apostle Paul showed that this is the correct understanding. In 1 Corinthians 7:2, he wrote: “Let each man have his own wife and each woman have her own husband.” And he directed that an appointed servant in the congregation was to be “a husband of one wife,” demonstrating the standard for Christians.—Titus 1:6; 1 Tim. 3:2, 12.

- Bob

2007-12-26 03:18:22 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2 4

As you read the Scripture stories where polygamy is involved, it should strike you that without fail they were dysfunctional families, and much evil came of it. Doesn't that tell you something? We don't have marriage under the laws of the Almighty anymore, but under the State.

2007-12-26 03:21:35 · answer #5 · answered by hasse_john 7 · 2 1

But why is it the MEN get to partake in having more than one spouse but WOMEN are stuck with ONE spouse?

Sounds like a raw deal made up by a religion that reveres the ridiculous concept of male superiority.

2007-12-26 03:18:22 · answer #6 · answered by wiccanhpp 5 · 5 1

again another contradiction from the bible, remember people this is something that was written by different men and they are many parts of the gospel that were not included, they were edited to fit the needs and ideology of the christian sect..it will always be interpreted as each religion sees fit

2007-12-26 03:29:00 · answer #7 · answered by chaoswantsangel 3 · 1 1

Christians and muslims are both women-oppressing, just that islam is still stricter when it comes to know. Majority of christians modernized, but trust me, there's still pretty much of them following the same rules. So yeah.case closed.

2007-12-26 03:24:33 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

I agree with dismel the first one, but heaven is suppose to be your guide here on earth. We are not suppose to desire the flesh of this world. Seek God's face for his way of creation, and love forever and not have to be like the angels in heaven.

2007-12-26 03:26:29 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

You can read the Bible until you don't know who is God and who is Satan. Or turn atheist and think you made them both. The Bible is circular logic, between truth and lies. Infinite, until you realize, God and Satan create a parallel paradox.

Thus one is real and the other isn't. For both cannot exist.
Three choice, either God invented Satan or Satan invented God, or we invented them.

2007-12-26 03:26:00 · answer #10 · answered by 666 2 · 1 1

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