2007-12-25 23:13:38 · 7 answers · asked by Tha Bears 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Genealogy
Donnabell and Marybrum are correct, it's two family names together, neither being the first name.
The practice in most Latin and Spanish countries is to use the surnames of both parents to identify the lineage of the child. A quick internet search brings up both men and women with the family names Duarte-Gonzalez. So it's a gender neutral name and only when you add the first name do we get some kind of clue how it's being used.
2007-12-25 23:41:19 · answer #1 · answered by GenevievesMom 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
"Duarte" is a Portuguese given name for boys, meaning "rich guard". An example of Gonzalez used as an Hispanic surname comes from Jorge Luis Gonzalez (b. 1964- ) the Havana, Cuban-born boxer who won a gold medal at the 1983 and 1987 Pan American games.
2007-12-26 07:38:18 · answer #2 · answered by Ellie Evans-Thyme 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Duarte is a man's name and Gonzalez is a family or a surname.But some country in Latin America uses two names like for example Jose lopez Perez;Javier Gonzalo Avarez and so on.But in other country like for example Philippines Duarte is a family name.
2007-12-26 07:28:03 · answer #3 · answered by donnabellekim 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Spanish speaking cultures use both the father's and the mother's surnames when naming children. Duarte is the father's surname and González is the mother's surname. There is no given name here.
2007-12-26 10:26:34 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
it's a double family name can be both for male or female
2007-12-26 07:34:53 · answer #5 · answered by marybrum2099 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Dont know who that is, but my guess because of the name is that he is a male
2007-12-26 07:16:52 · answer #6 · answered by anna 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
definitely male
2007-12-26 07:21:06 · answer #7 · answered by Petervl 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋