No.
John 10:30 is talking about his unity in purpose with the Father, not equality.
Compare with John 17:20-26, where Jesus asks the Father to make ALL followers of Jesus ONE with them (Jesus and Father). If in John 10:30 'one' means Jesus is God, then John 17:20-26 means ALL followers of Jesus (starting with the apostles through the centuries to this day) are also God.
Stupid idea, huh?
2007-12-25 22:36:21
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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The Hebrew Scriptures are consistently clear in showing that there is but one Almighty God, the Creator of all things and the Most High, whose name is Jehovah. (Ge 17:1; Isa 45:18; Ps 83:18) For that reason Moses could say to the nation of Israel: “Jehovah our God is one Jehovah. And you must love Jehovah your God with all your heart and all your soul and all your vital force.” (De 6:4, 5) The Christian Greek Scriptures do not contradict this teaching that had been accepted and believed by God’s servants for thousands of years, but instead they support it. (Mr 12:29; Ro 3:29, 30; 1Co 8:6; Eph 4:4-6; 1Ti 2:5) Jesus Christ himself said, “The Father is greater than I am” and referred to the Father as his God, “the only true God.” (Joh 14:28; 17:3; 20:17; Mr 15:34; Re 1:1; 3:12) On numerous occasions Jesus expressed his inferiority and subordination to his Father. (Mt 4:9, 10; 20:23; Lu 22:41, 42; Joh 5:19; 8:42; 13:16) Even after Jesus’ ascension into heaven his apostles continued to present the same picture.—1Co 11:3; 15:20, 24-28; 1Pe 1:3; 1Jo 2:1; 4:9, 10.
Jesus Christ is, not Almighty God, but the Son of God. Jesus Christ himself taught his followers to pray: “Our Father in the heavens, let your name be sanctified.” (Matthew 6:9) He never claimed equality with God. Remember, he said: “The Father is greater than I am.”
John 14:28.
Jesus prayed to his Father: “Let, not my will, but yours take place.” (Luke 22:42) To whom was Jesus praying if not to a superior Personage? Furthermore, it was God who resurrected Jesus from the dead, not Jesus himself. (Acts 2:32) Obviously, the Father and the Son were not equal before Jesus came to the earth or during his earthly life. What about after Jesus’ resurrection to heaven? First Corinthians 11:3 states: “The head of the Christ is God.” In fact, the Son will always be in subjection to God. (1Â Corinthians 15:28) The Scriptures therefore show that Jesus is not God Almighty. Instead, he is God’s Son.
2007-12-26 08:47:25
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answer #2
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answered by tahoe02_4me62 4
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At John 10:36, Jesus called himself God's Son. How can the Son of God be God at the same time?
2007-12-26 07:36:48
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answer #3
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answered by LineDancer 7
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John 10:30 "I and the Father are one." Jesus here says that He is one in unity with the Father, two separate distinct persons are involved, God and the Lamb, God and the Son of God, God and the mediator, who are a unity.
Knowing & studying Greek grammar really helps.
2007-12-26 08:03:33
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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I don't know why Trinitarians use John 10:30 because its obviously taken out of context. If they read John Chapter 17, we are also one with God and Jesus Christ.
So, the answer is no.
Theres false translations out there but clearly Jesus said his Father was the only True God, basically denying he as God.
2007-12-26 07:27:07
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answer #5
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answered by VMO 4
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Jesus NEVER.....NEVER.....claimed to be God. What he did was always acknowledge his lesser, subservient position to his God and Father. Time and again he stated that the things he taught people were not from his own originality, that he came to do not his own will but his father's, and he frankly said "the father is greater than I am". Jesus' own apostles recognized him as not God, but God's son, and so did Jesus' enemies, the demons when he came across them possessing people during that time.
2007-12-26 07:06:06
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answer #6
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answered by X 7
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Nope. When he said "The father and I are one," what it actually means is that they were both of one mind, as in, they were in agreement. Many things get lost in translation and this is one of them.
Jesus did, numerous times, say that he was NOT GOD, however:
"And, behold, one came and said unto him [Jesus], Good Master, what good thing shall I do, that I may have eternal life? And he [Jesus] said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments."
- Matt. 19:16-17
Here, Jesus not only affirms that GOD is the true Master of the Worlds, but that GOD's law does not disappear under a "New Covenant," but that it is still to be respected and obeyed.
You will still find plenty of people who will justify their own beliefs and continue the idolatrous practice of worshipping Jesus as GOD. But Christ never wanted this and would no doubt be humiliated and insulted that his Gospel has been so corrupted.
2007-12-26 06:48:18
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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No he did not. Nor did he accept worship.
The bible says something like this, he did not have a siezure in making himself equal to God. I think that should set matters straight in that there is no trinity. Compare that with this scripture at Proverbs 8:20 and onward.
2007-12-26 06:53:53
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answer #8
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answered by fire 5
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people use what Jesus said you seen me you seen the Father, to mean that he was God Jehovah. what is was saying was that he knows his Father Jehovah real well because he was with the Father for billions of years. even the 12 disciples new that Jesus was not Jehovah God. so to answer your question no Jesus never said he was God. who was he praying to? you cannot pray to yourself. when Jesus was baptized, Jehovah came down and said this is my son the beloved.
2007-12-26 07:48:17
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answer #9
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answered by lover of Jehovah and Jesus 7
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No; the few who claim he did are applying their own, incorrect interpretation to somewhat ambiguous or nuanced phrases in the Bible. During his last moments on the cross the Bible claims some of his last words were: "Father, why hast thou forsaken me?" That sentence clearly doesn't fit with they being one and the same.
2007-12-26 13:26:47
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answer #10
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answered by golfer7 5
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