I was reading the Bible today and I come across this. How can the Bible be called the word of God if the science within the text itself is nothing but, excuse my language, trash?
2007-12-25
21:38:48
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19 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
In the Old Testament, Leviticus 12:2 seems to indicate that a woman can produce semen: "When a woman tazria and bears a male child, then she shall be unclean seven days." The root of tazria is ZR, which means to sow (a seed). When a form of ZR means "to become pregnant, to be impregnated," the form tazara (the niphal or passive form) is always used (see, for example, Numbers 5:28; Nahum 1:14). In Leviticus, however, the causative (hiphil) is used. The only other place in the Hebrew Bible where the causative form of this root appears, it is used of plants in the sense of "produce seed, yield seed, form seed" (Genesis 1:11-12--on the third day of creation God created plants yielding seed). The causative form, used in Leviticus 12:2, cannot mean anything else than "make seed."
Ray, if you're read the Bible, then surely you know this. You can be an athiest, but there's a difference between an intelligent athiest and one that remarks arrogantly. ;)
2007-12-25
21:45:33 ·
update #1