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Some Christians tell me they don't need to do old testament requirements anymore because Jesus put a stop to them. Which makes sense, meaning many of the old laws no longer apply.

But then Christians also tell me Jesus didn't override the old law, Jesus merely completed or fulfilled it. But if that's the case, why do Christians do so many practices which under 'old' law are a sin? Eg:

-allowing menstruating women in a public place of worship
-eating meat with some blood remaining
-eating pork,
-non-circumcision,
-making statues and images of heaven, hell and God himself
-planting different crops in the same field
-not observing the sabbath correctly (Moses revealed the proper way through the Talmud from my understanding, so only orthodox Jews have kept the rule like not being allowed to light a fire, tie a knot or write anything)

If they weren't to apply eternally, why were they made in the first place? If they're meant to be followed, why do all churches breach them?

2007-12-25 16:53:56 · 8 answers · asked by grassfell 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Julia D- I know God has God's own covenant with the Jews, and another for everyone else. But why should Christians even read the hebrew bible (old testament) at all then? If it's just a history book, why are some parts used as law and others aren't?

2007-12-25 17:15:00 · update #1

8 answers

You don't understand the nature of the old covenant.

It was a "contract" between God and Israel. Christians were not a party to that contract.

You also do not understand the difference between "keeping" and "fulfilling" the law. To keep a law such as "you shall not murder" means you refrain from murder even though you hate someone enough to want to kill them. To fulfill that point of law means you have love for even an enemy.

What happens to a covenant / contract when either party to it dies? It ends. Paul uses a marriage covenant to explain this in Romans 7.

.

2007-12-26 03:02:07 · answer #1 · answered by Hogie 7 · 0 1

Contrary to what Christianity teaches, those are OUR laws, and they never applied to non-Jews, therefore Jesus didn't save them from the laws.

Can't be saved from something that they were never bound by, there is nothing to free them from.

There were never any penalities or punishments given to non-Jews who didn't follow Torah law, because it never applied to them in the first place.

So all your questions are based on incorrect information that non-Jews used to follow these laws, and that these laws applied to them.

There IS a category of law that does apply to non-Jews, and it still does today, Jesus didn't free anyone from it.
These are the 7 Noahide (Universal) Laws:
http://www.noahide.org These are the only laws that have ever applied to non-Jews, and still do. It is also by following the paths of these laws that non-Jews merit their place in the World To Come.

Source: Torah, me, Jewish

EDIT: The only reason the Torah was tacked onto the Christian new testament by the Church was to try to give the new testament legitimacy -- false prophecies, misinterpretations (many deliberate), and mistranslations done by the Church to the old testament that supposedly point to Jesus, etc. When these things don't actually exist there in the Torah at all. Without that, Christianity's pagan foundations are fully exposed. That is why the Torah was attached to the new testament by the Church.

You are aware that the doctrines and foundational beliefs of Judaism and Christianity are complete polar opposites, nothing alike whatsoever? Most Christians are not aware of this. Most Jews are. The foundational beliefs of Christianity come from ancient paganism, not from Judaism.

2007-12-25 17:07:39 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

There were 2 sets of law. The law God wrote with his finger on Sinani (10 commandments) and the law that Moses recorded for the people in the first 5 books of the Bible. The former is universal and timeless, the latter was for the Jews in the pre-Messianic era.

2007-12-25 17:04:28 · answer #3 · answered by Truth 7 · 0 1

I cant help yet snort on the lack of expertise of the holier-than-thou Christians. I come from a Jewish historic past yet tend in the direction of the medical. Jesus Christ himself believed in the old testomony. The OT is genuinely the pillar that allowed the NT to be created. the incredibly memories of the OT have been written nicely till now the age of Christ (even however probably in a distinctive sort) even however i'm blind to the incredibly date. It develop into regularly sent notice of mouth a minimum of till around 1500 BC. and that i'm no longer specific why specific aspects of the OT are seen real on an identical time as others are skirted. the theory that Jesus provides a normal present (and it is not any longer in many situations informed to any congregation that i circulate to that repentance is a call for) relatively would not look substantial to me for my section. i could say ninety 8% or extra (i could lean in the direction of one hundred% yet that seems extremist of me) of the Christians I even have met have self assurance in God in simple terms to acheive egocentric targets of heavenly rewards. no longer the incredibly objective to do Gods notice....which seems to have been lost on account that presently after the time of King David.

2016-11-25 00:45:30 · answer #4 · answered by jaffar 4 · 0 0

This is a complex issue, Basically it replicates the argument as to whether non Jews could be Christian. Paul won the argument and the early church went after the Greeks who were not about to put up with all that stuff. If you are really interested try reading Acts and the various Letters.

2007-12-25 17:02:36 · answer #5 · answered by Stephen Y 6 · 1 1

as far as we can tell from reading the new testament Christ
coming down and dying for us replaced ALOT of the law and
according to that belief only reiterated 8-9 of the 10 commandments....then he gave us some new instructions
besides that..

I.E

bread and the wine...
do unto others as you would have done to you....

etc...etc..

Go with what Christ said....


you know they yelled at Jesus for healing on the sabbath
and Jesus told them off....that should be a good clue
about how the the sabbath changed and ended...

2007-12-25 17:00:55 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

you said it yourself bro... it's completed. once you have completed something it no longer needs to be done. now we live by the laws Christ set before us... ie: do unto others. it's not about following a set of rules but about following the heart of God

2007-12-25 17:04:57 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Pius XII: Mystici Corporis, 29: "And first of all, by the death of our Redeemer, the New Testament took the place of the Old Law which had been abolished; then the Law of Christ together with its mysteries, enactments, institutions, and sacred rites was ratified for the whole world in the blood of Jesus Christ...but on the Gibbet of His death Jesus made void the Law with its decrees fastened the handwriting of the Old Testament to the Cross, establishing the New Testament in His blood shed for the whole human race. "To such an extent, then," says St. Leo the Great, speaking of the Cross of our Lord, "was there effected a transfer from the Law to the Gospel, from the Synagogue to the Church, from the many sacrifices to one Victim, that, as Our Lord expired, that mystical veil which shut off the innermost part of the temple and its sacred secret was rent violently from top to bottom."
30: "On the Cross then the Old Law died, soon to be buried and to be a bearer of death, in order to give way to the New Testament of which Christ had chosen the Apostles as qualified ministers"
Council of Trent, ch 1, 793: "but not even the Jews by the very letter of the law of Moses were able to be liberated or to rise therefrom"
Council of Trent, Session 6, ch 2: "that He might both redeem the Jews, who were under the Law"
Council of Trent, Canon 1: "If anyone shall say that man can be justified before God by his own works which are done through his own natural powers, or through the teaching of the Law...let him be anathema."
Council of Florence, DS 695: "There are seven sacraments of the new Law: namely, baptism, confirmation, Eucharist, penance, extreme unction, orders, and matrimony, which differ a great deal from the sacraments of the Old Law. For those of the Old Law did not effect grace, but only pronounced that it should be given through the passion of Christ; these sacraments of ours contain grace, and confer it upon those who receive them worthily."
Council of Florence, DS 712: "It firmly believes, professes, and teaches that the matter pertaining to the law of the Old Testament, of the Mosiac law, which are divided into ceremonies, sacred rites, sacrifices, and sacraments, because they were established to signify something in the future, although they were suited to the divine worship at that time, after our Lord's coming had been signified by them, ceased, and the sacraments of the New Testament began; and that whoever, even after the passion, placed hope in these matters of the law and submitted himself to them as necessary for salvation, as if faith in Christ could not save without them, sinned mortally."
"All, therefore, who after that time observe circumcision and the Sabbath and the other requirements of the law, it declares alien to the Christian faith and not in the least fit to participate in eternal salvation, unless someday they recover from these errors. Therefore, it commands all who glory in the name of Christian, at whatever time, before or after baptism' to cease entirely from circumcision, since, whether or not one places hope in it, it cannot be observed at all without the loss of eternal salvation."
Pope Benedict XIV, Ex Quo Primum, #59: "However they are not attempting to observe the precepts of the old Law, which as everyone knows have been revoked by the coming of Christ."
Pope Benedict XIV, Ex Quo Primum, #61: "The first consideration is that the ceremonies of the Mosaic law were abrogated by the coming of Christ and they can no longer be observed without sin after the promulgation of the Gospel."
Pius VI, DS 1519-1520 (condemned the following): "Likewise, the doctrine which adds that under the Law man 'became a prevaricator, since he was powerless to observe it, not indeed by the fault of the Law, which was most sacred, but by the guilt of man, who, under the Law, without grace, became more and more a prevaricator'; and it further adds, 'that the Law, if it did not heal the heart of man, brought it about that he would recognize his evil, and, being convinced of his weakness, would desire the grace of a mediator'; in this part it generally intimates that man became a prevaricator through the nonobservance of the Law which he was powerless to observe, as if 'He who is just could command something impossible, or He who is pious would be likely to condemn man for that which he could not avoid' (from St. Caesarius Serm. 73, in append., St. Augustine, Serm. 273, edit. Maurin; from St. August., De nat, et "rat., e. 43; De "rat. et lib. arb., e. 16, Enarr. in psalm. 56, n. I),-- false scandalous, impious, condemned in Baius (see n. 1504).
1520 20. "In that part in which it is to be understood that man, while under the Law and without grace, could conceive a desire for the grace of a Mediator related to the salvation promised through Christ, as if 'grace itself does not effect that He be invoked by us' (from Conc. Araus. II, can. 3 [v.n. 176]),-- the proposition as it stands, deceitful, suspect, favorable to the Semipelagian heresy.

2007-12-25 20:07:29 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

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