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c.1300 B.C.
In the capital city of Thebes, Egyptians begin cultivation of opium thebaicum,grown in their famous poppy fields.The opium trade flourishes during the reign of Thutmose IV, Akhenaton and King Tutankhamen. The trade route included the Phoenicians and Minoans who move the profitable item across the Mediterranean Sea into Greece, Carthage, and Europe.
c. 460 B.C.
Hippocrates, "the father of medicine", dismisses the magical attributes of opium but acknowledges its usefulness as a narcotic and styptic in treating internal diseases, diseases of women and epidemics.
330 B.C.
Alexander the Great introduces opium to the people of Persia and India.
A.D. 400
Opium thebaicum, from the Egytpian fields at Thebes, is first introduced to China by Arab traders.
1527
During the height of the Reformation, opium is reintroduced into European medical literature by Paracelsus as laudanum. These black pills or "Stones of Immortality" were made of opium

2007-12-25 14:31:33 · 20 answers · asked by mw 7 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

1527
During the height of the Reformation, opium is reintroduced into European medical literature by Paracelsus as laudanum. These black pills or "Stones of Immortality" were made of opium thebaicum, citrus juice and quintessence of gold and prescribed as painkillers.

http://www.pbs.org/wgbh/pages/frontline/shows/heroin/etc/history.html

2007-12-25 14:33:30 · update #1

I don't know what kind of gold I didn't write that.
But the kind you describe would explain the stuff given to Mary and Joeseph by the priests to tell the truth about them not sexual relations before their marriage.
They both said they didn't and no harm was done to them after they drank some elixir of truth

2007-12-25 15:25:10 · update #2

I have no belief as of yet.
I'm just asking a question
Where was Jesus 2-11 yrs old?
In Egypt?
He could have known about the Sleep Inducing properties of Papaver Somniferum.
330 BC-Black Stones of Immortality=opium
400 AD-Opium thebaicum from the Egyptian fields

2007-12-25 15:40:03 · update #3

They don't want to look
It's easier to just believe

2007-12-25 15:43:15 · update #4

Can you send a link to Michael Persinger's article?

2007-12-25 15:49:19 · update #5

20 answers

Yes, indeed. That is why I often reference the neuroscientist Dr. Michael Persinger's article "Science And The Ressurection". In it, he explains quite a bit about what probably really happened, due to other research he was conducting on epilepsy. Persinger would never perform the experiments on a human as it causes irreversible brain damage, but the indications are it was a coma, not death.

The drug the character would have used is called reserpine, which is psychotropic in nature.

Forgive and Buttercup: anything which upsets your neat tidy world calls for insults?

Interesting that atheists are accused of being insulting, but the moment anyone is curious about a topic, they have no brain?

2007-12-25 14:35:46 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 4 5

Acts 20:28 says: "Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock...to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood." The antecedent of "his" is "God." Paul declared that God shed His blood for the church. Three questions arise from this Scripture: 1) How can it be said that God has blood? (God is a Spirit [John 4:24]). Jesus shed His blood by dying on the cross. 2) If this blood is actually the blood of God, did God die? If the blood of Jesus is identified as God's blood, then Jesus' physical humanity was God's. 3) This being true, was Jesus' body still God when in the grave? We know that it was actually Jesus who shed His blood on the cross, so calling Jesus' blood the blood of God demonstrates the deity of Jesus Christ; however, the implications of this verse do not stop here. If the human blood shed at Calvary can be said to be God's, this indicates that even the humanity of Christ can be said to be divine. When we understand the true nature of the hypostatic union we must confess that the humanity God assumed in the incarnation has now been permanently incorporated into His eternal existence as Spirit. The Scripture declares this when it says "the Word [God] was made flesh." The humanity of Jesus was not the essence of God's being, but because of the hypostatic union the deity was miraculously manifest in every aspect of Jesus' humanity. It is in this manner that the body of Jesus can be said to be the body of God. As a result it might be said that God was born of a virgin, suffered, died, and rose again. This is not to say that Jesus' death was any different than any other man's death. When Jesus died on the cross, He died like any other human being would die. His human spirit separated from His body (Matthew 27:50; James 2:26). If Jesus' humanity was permanently incorporated into the Godhead, becoming a part of God's existence, then was Jesus' deceased body the body of God?? Answer: The fulness [sic] of deity continued to be expressed in His immaterial being even during the time of His death, and at His resurrection His immaterial and material parts were reunited permanently. The body of Jesus was even God's body while in the grave. When it is implied that God died, it must be understood that it is not being alleged that the Spirit of God died. A spirit cannot die. What is being referenced is God's existence as a human being. As a man God could and did die. The way to lessen the impact of this hard-to-swallow truth might lie in the usage of terminology. The term "Son of God" is used in reference to God's existence as a human being throughout the New Testament. This term specifically refers to God's assumption of, and existence as humanity. It was in this state that God died. It seems better, then, to say that the Son of God died. This is consistent with the terminology of the New Testament, and in no way takes away from the truth of Acts 20:28.

2016-05-26 05:57:49 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

Fake Death..No, Spent time in Egypt, yes..as an Infant when they ran away from the killings of all babies under 2.

Why legs not broken.?
Yes, the account in John 19:31-37 makes it clear that Jesus had died before the soldier pierced him.
According to the Mosaic law, an executed criminal was not to hang all night on the execution stake, but should be buried the same day, so as not to defile the land by disregard for God’s law. (Deut. 21:22, 23) If Jesus and the criminals beside him lingered alive on the stakes, it already being late afternoon, they would remain on the stakes after the sabbath began at sunset. To prevent this, the Jews asked that all three have their legs broken.
A French researcher, Dr. Jacques Bréhant, commented on the reason for this, as reported on in Medical World News for October 21, 1966. We read: “The crurifragium, breaking the legs of the crucified man, made it impossible for him to raise himself to breathe. . . . The Jews asked that the legs of all three of the condemned be broken and that they be taken away. The soldiers accordingly broke the legs of the thieves. But when they came to Jesus, the soldiers could see that He was already dead.” Dr. Bréhant offered two possible reasons as to why only Jesus was dead: (1) “The thieves may have been tied, rather than nailed.” (2) “Christ was greatly weakened by the treatment inflicted before” impalement.
Had Jesus been alive, the soldiers would have broken his legs also. Instead, we read: “But on coming to Jesus, as [the soldiers] saw that he was already dead, they did not break his legs. Yet one of the soldiers jabbed his side with a spear, and immediately blood and water came out.”

2007-12-25 14:45:33 · answer #3 · answered by conundrum 7 · 1 3

huh? what does opium have to do with faking death? you say it cures internal diseases? i don't think being beaten and hung on a cross is an internal disease, or that it could be fixed by opium, or any drugs for that matter.

try looking up a medical account of what Jesus went through when he was put on trial and crucified. My teacher read one to us once, but i can't remember where he found it. You should try to find it and read it though it was very interesting.

2007-12-25 14:39:32 · answer #4 · answered by sdfghjkjhbgvfdcfvgbh 4 · 2 2

sure he could have. "The Passover Plot" claimed he took magic mushrooms, if I remember correctly, to fake his death. He could have had a twin brother who took his place, or, if he had magic powers, he could have created a similacrum who took his place. He could have written the whole thing himself and used Svengali-like powers to convince others that it was true. He could have hypnotized the crowd with his piercing eyes so that they thought he was dead. He could have laced the bread and fishes with spices that fooled the crowds. He could have done just about anything.
but there is no reason to believe any of that. All of these require taking the gospel accounts as true, and then trying to explain them away. That he died on the cross and rose again is the theory most in keeping with the text.

2007-12-25 14:39:36 · answer #5 · answered by rebecca v d liep 4 · 0 2

There is a good evidence that he spent his "lost years" in India, learning from masters. He might have been trained in yoga.

Feigning death, walking on water, walking through walls, transforming one thing into another can be accomplished Yogis, as mentioned in Yog Sutra.

2007-12-25 18:00:04 · answer #6 · answered by rupee100 5 · 2 1

If a human wants a truthful answer to this ominous question, then a human must ask Jesus (PBUH), face to face.

The truth is within man, take a journey within and ask this question for yourself!

Finding the "Truth" is an inside job. Start now, better late than never!

"Peace be always with you."

2007-12-25 14:44:50 · answer #7 · answered by WillRogerswannabe 7 · 1 2

It'd take more than painkillers to 'save' Jesus. The romans were professional executioners. They KNEW what they were doing, and knew what death looked like. NOBODY could have survived the combination of scourging, crucifixion, and being abandoned on a cold stone platform. That theory is about as illogical as they get.

2007-12-25 14:39:07 · answer #8 · answered by Michelle C 4 · 1 3

There is much evidence and many questions around the life of Jesus to bring into doubt the writings of the New Testament, if people will only look

2007-12-25 14:38:34 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 3 2

that was a lot of detail that had nothing to do with Christ's
death or resurrection. He was given no opium or medicine
of any kind. They didn't break His legs because He was
already dead. I think the Roman soldiers could tell whether
He was dead or not.

When God gave out brains,you musta thought he said trains
and you missed yours. Sorry about that.

2007-12-25 14:41:24 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 2 3

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