what do you think is ment in this passage, especially if it is to be taken liturally?
"When Jesus saw his mother, and the disciple whom he loved standing near, he said to his mother, 'Woman, behold, your son!'. Then he said to the disciple, 'Behold, your mother!’" (Jn 19:26-27).
2007-12-25
13:24:54
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11 answers
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asked by
Adam of the wired
7
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
john & tessa if this is the case then why didnt Jesus say "John my beloved deciple will you please aid my mother"
"Mother please allow John to aid you"
2007-12-25
13:33:56 ·
update #1
not to be rude but as a roman catholic it seems like this verse as with the majority of scripture went right over the protestants heads.
there is no indication that john, "the disciple whom he loved" was a brother relative or adopted relative to jesus. may i note if one takes this passage literally, if jesus gave his mother over to the care of one he loves and he loves all mankind then mary then comes into our care and she is our spiritual mother. secondly that jesus gave the care of mary over to john then we can conclude mary was ever virgin, in that period if jesus was to do something like that then his brothers would have been vehemently opposed and angry yet no such incident is ever recorded.
2007-12-25 15:58:10
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answer #1
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answered by fenian1916 5
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Well, if you'll permit a Catholic who's not all-knowing to reply, I'd sure say that looks like Jesus intended for Mary to be John's mother and John to take Mary as his mother. Which would mean that Jesus was John's older brother.
And by extension, that would make Mary our Mother, too, since Jesus was the founder of Christianity and John was His adopted brother. Kind of one of those "My brothers' mother is also my mother" deals.
But hey, what do us Catholics know, eh?
2007-12-25 21:41:17
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answer #2
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answered by Wolfeblayde 7
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Jesus was telling John to take care of his mother as if she were his own mother and telling her that John was now going to take care of her. Since Jesus' mother was a widow, she needed someone to care for her because she could not own property and had no rights. John would take care of that and make sure she was well cared for in her old age.
2007-12-25 21:34:08
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answer #3
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answered by William D 5
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He wanted to make sure His mother was taken care of. He commanded His desciple to "adopt" in a fashion, Mary. This is what I take from the passage anyway. He wanted to make sure she was looked after.
edit: Just like what "John S." wrote ... not too hard to interpret.
2007-12-25 21:33:24
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answer #4
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answered by TexasTrev38 5
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I have always been taught it means for that disciple to take care of Jesus' mother. I don't think you had to put the question they way you did. You cannot judge that only Protestants understand Christ. I am a Protestant but that was a rude way to put a question.
2007-12-25 21:30:02
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answer #5
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answered by Tessa 5
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He turned his mother over to the disciples for her safe keeping.
2007-12-25 21:31:57
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answer #6
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answered by jeni 7
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Mom, John will take care of you now.
John, take care of my mother.
2007-12-25 21:30:27
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answer #7
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answered by Higgy Baby 7
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Well, since I'm an atheist, I'm not legally allowed to answer this question.
Have a nice day, all knowing and truly prejudiced Protestant.
2007-12-25 21:33:15
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answer #8
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answered by Sucre Noir 5
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ambrose Bierce said it best:
"What is your religion my son?" inquired the Archbishop of Rheims.
"Pardon, monseigneur," replied Rochebriant; "I am ashamed of it."
"Then why do you not become an atheist?"
"Impossible! I should be ashamed of atheism."
"In that case, monsieur, you should join the Protestants."
2007-12-25 21:47:38
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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The only interpreters of Christ's word --
have about two hundred differing interpretations, if each denomination has its own interpretation -- or do some of them share interpretations?
2007-12-25 21:29:40
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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