After the birth of Jesus, does it not show that Mary is a sinner when?

Question

After the birth of Jesus, does it not show that Mary is a sinner when she offered the two turtle doves, one for burnt offering and the other for SIN offering, in accordance to the law of Moses in Leviticus 12?

Thus, as Mary is a sinner,

there is no immaculate conception,
and as such, there is no assumption of Mary
and as such, the popes and the unholy blind (as opposed to the holy see) had been wrong all along in matters of faith and doctrine, ex cathedra???????????

Answer 1

You are right! Mary was blessed, not holy the Bible says. Nowhere in scripture does it say she was also conceived immaculately.It doesn't even say who her parents were!Mary was a willing vessel chosen by God.Nothing more!Catholicism is based on the traditions of man, not the Word of God.

Answer 2

There is one fatal flaw in your answer, and it has been a mindset that is deeply flawed, as it is responsible for years of opressing women through the Faith.
In Genesis God told Adam that he brought death into the world, which was his punishment. All Eve got for the sin she commited was a painful child birth. Original sin is passed through the father, NOT the mother. Therefore, Mary, while a sinner, did not have original sin to pass onto Jesus.

Hope this helped.
Ultimately, it is up to listen..as if you attempt is to thwart all attempts of the Truth, than there is no one on here that can help you.

Answer 3

It's funny how you base your entire belief systems on the Bible, when the books of the Bible were chosen to be put into the Bible by a Catholic Bishop in the 500's. I'm not saying that of course the Catholic Bishop chose the Old Testament books, but the New Testament books.

At the time there were like 100 books that people were using, which got confusing for most people. It was simpler to choose the books closest to the truth. It's ironic that it was a Catholic Bishop that chose the books.

You may say that he was "divinely inspired", and if that's true, than that means that God accepts the Catholic Church as a Christian Church.

Answer 4

Is it correct to speak of Mary’s perpetual virginity? The Bible makes mention of Jesus’ “brothers” and “sisters.” (Matthew 13:53-56) The Catholic Church claims they were his cousins. But Catholic writer Jean Gilles points out that the Christian Greek Scriptures use the same terms in referring to the brothers and sisters of other Bible characters, such as Peter and Andrew, as well as Lazarus, Martha, and Mary, and that “they were real brothers and sisters. The Church has never presented them differently.” Why, then, should they be called Jesus’ cousins when the Scriptures speak of “brothers” and “sisters”?

Was Mary immaculate, or without sin, at the time of her conception? Theologians explain that this was possible because of her “advanced redemption.” In other words, the benefits of Christ’s ransom were applied to her in advance, even before Jesus was conceived and sacrificed. But this conflicts with the Bible teaching that “unless blood is poured out no forgiveness takes place.” (Hebrews 9:22) It is therefore incorrect to speak of an “advanced redemption.” (Romans 5:12; compare Luke 2:22-24 with Leviticus 12:1-8.) This dogma, concludes Laurentin, “is not Biblical.”

While the Bible portrays Mary as being humble, faithful, and devout, it does not ascribe these qualities to an “immaculate conception.” (Luke 1:38; Acts 1:13, 14) The Bible simply says: “All have sinned and fall short of the glory of God.” (Romans 3:23) Yes, Mary inherited sin and imperfection as did the rest of humankind, and there is no evidence that she died from anything other than natural causes.—Compare 1 John 1:8-10.

Was Mary herself immaculately conceived, free from original sin when her mother conceived her?

The New Catholic Encyclopedia (1967, Vol. VII, pp. 378-381) acknowledges regarding the origin of the belief: “ . . . the Immaculate Conception is not taught explicitly in Scripture . . . The earliest Church Fathers regarded Mary as holy but not as absolutely sinless. . . . It is impossible to give a precise date when the belief was held as a matter of faith, but by the 8th or 9th century it seems to have been generally admitted. . . . [In 1854 Pope Pius IX defined the dogma] ‘which holds that the most Blessed Virgin Mary was preserved from all stain of original sin in the first instant of her Conception.’” This belief was confirmed by Vatican II (1962-1965).—The Documents of Vatican II (New York, 1966), edited by W. M. Abbott, S.J., p. 88.

The Bible itself says: “Well then, sin entered the world through one man [Adam], and through sin death, and thus death has spread through the whole human race because everyone has sinned.” (Rom. 5:12, JB; italics added.) Does that include Mary? The Bible reports that in accord with the requirement of the Mosaic Law, 40 days after Jesus’ birth Mary offered at the temple in Jerusalem a sin offering for purification from uncleanness. She, too, had inherited sin and imperfection from Adam.—Luke 2:22-24; Lev. 12:1-8.

Answer 5

"For all man has sinned and come short of the glory of God." She was repenting as everyone should. The immaculate conception you are reffering to WAS holy and pure because she didn't sin to become pregnant with Jesus- God chose her as the mother. So, whatever you believe, just take in account that if that is the truth, every time you do something holy or righteous, there is no hope for you, but because you sinned (and you even repented and God said he would forgive you mind you!) it accounts for nothing.

Answer 6

It wasn't a sin offering, Mary had to sacrifice the doves by law. She gave birth to a son, all male birth required by law to sacrifice...she was considered unclean.

Yes, by the Holy Spirit she conceived.

Edit: Mary was a sinner, but the sacrifice was not a sin sacrifice.

Answer 7

Mary was a virgin all through her pregnancy, but after Jesus was delivered she had sex with her husband Joseph and had several children through him.
Matthew 1:24 Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife:
Matthew 1:25 And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.
Mary was accounted righteous based upon the same reason Abraham was accounted righteous: she believed God and it was accounted unto her for righteousness. Mary's righteousness of the flesh was no different than any other virgin.
Galatians 3:6 Even as Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness.

Answer 8

There was only ONE sinless flesh person, and that was the Word, made flesh. If Mary were sinless, she could have been the sacrifice for sin, but she was a sinner, and she aged and died just like the rest of the sinful world, but Christ overcame our flesh for us, and we SHALL rise again.

Let's see what Jesus had to say about exalting Mary; Luke 11:27-28, "And it came to pass...a certain woman of the company lifted up her voice, and said unto him, Blessed is the womb that bare thee, and the paps which thou hast sucked. BUT HE SAID, YEA RATHER, blessed are they that hear the word of God, and keep it".

Jesus loved his fleshly mother, but he let us know without a doubt that she is no better than those who hear and do.

Answer 9

Well, I am not a catholic so I have never believed Mary to be without sin. She was virgin, but not totally sinless.

As far as the rest of catholic doctrine, it is full of falsehood, but I have still met a few saved catholics who recognize those false teachings and yet choose to remain in the Catholic church in order to lead others to the Lord. I have also met some saved Catholics who honestly believe it would be wrong to leave the Church despite its faults, yet they believe in Jesus and know Him as LORD and Savior. My mother-in-law falls into the second category. She is saved, but believes leaving the church would be wrong.

Answer 10

Yes.
You are correct in all that you said.

But lets not confuse this issue with the sinless birth of Jesus. It is not Mary that was holy, but the seed.