English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

.....is there any consequence for eye health, of someone never crying/getting tearful, as opposed to someone who cries or gets tearful on a regular basis...whether through laughter or feeling sad, upset etc.

2007-12-24 11:37:40 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Health Optical

...ie: is there anything unique in the compostion of cried tears, as opposed to the substance that lubricates your eyes through the day?

2007-12-24 11:41:03 · update #1

4 answers

First part: yes. Men are typically near-sighted (see clearly up close, need glasses for far-off, such as driving or playing golf). Women are typically far-sighted (see clearly at a distance, need glasses to read or sew).
Second part: no difference, unless it is an extreme. Dry eyes is an eye condition; however, a person who seldom cries or has tears (tearing is a milder form of crying; it is normal for the eye to produce tears, which is how it stays moist) does not necessarily have dry eyes. However, a person who produces too many tears will be bleary-eyed.

2007-12-24 13:23:41 · answer #1 · answered by Nothingusefullearnedinschool 7 · 0 0

A lot of older women develop dry eyes as a symptom of menopause. It has nothing to do with how much they cry or not but more to do with fluctuating hormone levels.

2007-12-25 00:37:26 · answer #2 · answered by RoVale 7 · 0 0

I reckon women must have more productive tear ducts.

2007-12-24 19:42:46 · answer #3 · answered by Lucky Man 2 7 · 0 0

wouldnt have thought so. maybe you should ask an optician

2007-12-24 19:41:09 · answer #4 · answered by L 7 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers