2007-12-24 01:44:30 · 13 answers · asked by Jed B 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
one is his mothers line and the other is josephs line...
this gave Christ the right to be King of Isreal both by the blood
(mary) and legal title(joseph)...
2007-12-24 02:03:28 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
First, does anyone care whether you don't accept the fact of Luke's line is tracing Mary's line? Secondly, promises were made to David which both lines did. Lastly, a virgin birth is the only way for Jesus' sacrifice to become effective. Only a perfect human life could be exchanged for the value of Adam's life. At least one parent must be perfect as God was. Oddly today, we have no problem if we understand medicine about a virgin birth. Artificial insemination is common place. (Without a male being present.) Projections are for taking genetic material from bones to remake an embryo into the donors' image. This would not require males at all. We just do not think of virgin birth in that way.
2016-05-26 02:58:39 · answer #2 · answered by julieta 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Matthew is the genealogy of his step father, Joseph, and Luke is the genealogy of his Mother, or the other way around. Joseph is not his real blood line, even though the Jews would have recognized that. Anyway both are descendents of Judah, David & Bathsheba, Solomon, which proves that a son can be better than his great great grandparents.
2007-12-24 01:57:32 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
Ancestry of a man was customarily traced back through the father, not through the mother. Thus, whereas there seems to be sound reason for believing that Luke presents Jesus’ genealogy through his mother (an exception to the general rule), Luke does not list her. Apparently he lists her husband Joseph as the son of Heli, evidently Mary’s father. This would not be improper in the least, since Joseph would be Heli’s son-in-law.
2007-12-24 01:48:32 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
Vot Arnax is correct.
They trace Mary's genealogy and Joseph's individually. One of the wonderful things about that? After the destruction of Jerusalem, Ezekiel prophesied at Ez 21:27 ": “A ruin, a ruin, a ruin I shall make it. As for this also, it will certainly become no one’s until he comes who has the legal right, and I must give it to him." By tracing his Jesus lineage back through both parents to King David (and beyond) it could not be doubted that he was that ONE
2007-12-24 02:05:43 · answer #5 · answered by Q&A Queen 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
It was customary to mention the geneology through Joseph, but we know it was clearly through Mary.
One is from Adam to David the other is Abraham to David and they split with Nathan (Mary's side) Solomon (Joseph's side).
Merry Christmas
2007-12-24 01:52:52 · answer #6 · answered by Jeancommunicates 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Seriously, the gospellers were writing to different audiences at different times and they did not collaborate. They had the bare bones of the Jesus story but had to make up the fine details as they went along. It never occurred to them that 300 years later these fabrications would appear together in a compilation called the bible.
2007-12-24 02:26:04 · answer #7 · answered by youngmoigle 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
One of then is Joseph side, the other is from Mary's side; but repeat the name of Joseph which is the son in law of Mary's father. After King David one line goes from his son Solomon, the other goes down from David's son Nathan.
2007-12-24 01:59:17 · answer #8 · answered by Darth Eugene Vader 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Jed,
VOT is absolutely correct. The lines from HIS mother and Joseph (stepfather) were both traced showing that they both led back to Abraham. Have a great Christmas with your family!
Thanks,
Eds
.
2007-12-24 01:50:41 · answer #9 · answered by Eds 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
One is Joseph's (Jesus' legal father), and the other Mary's
2007-12-24 02:58:24 · answer #10 · answered by Steve Amato 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋