If a crime boss ordered the killing because the victim was his enemy, he will be tried for murder even though he did not actually pull the trigger. Why can't the same rules applied for politicians?
2007-12-23 05:36:06 · 5 answers · asked by mozart8 3 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Politicians can be tried for murders that they order even if they do not actually pull the trigger. Examples include the trial of Nazi war criminals at Nuremberg, Saddam Hussein, and the East German guy who ordered the shootings of persons trying to escape to the west.
2007-12-23 06:45:01 · answer #1 · answered by StephenWeinstein 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If a politician orders someone to commit murder, the rules ARE the same. If you are referring to WAR, that is not murder.
2007-12-23 06:05:51 · answer #2 · answered by STEVEN F 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Two questions....one makes sense and the other is ridiculous.
If there is an established nexus between a murder and the crime boss of course the crime boss can and has been charged with, prosecuted and found guilty of murder.
2007-12-23 05:43:04 · answer #3 · answered by malter 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Because the politicians are acting within the laws of this country, and the crime boss was violating the laws. Pretty simple, isn't it?
2007-12-23 05:49:47 · answer #4 · answered by Rick K 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because politicians declare war and killing in war is not murder.
2007-12-23 05:44:04 · answer #5 · answered by mnwomen 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋