2007-12-23 04:05:33 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
You're question is wrong
even with no friction,
you would, at least, need fapp = ma = 5*6 = 30N
to get an acceleration of 6m/s²
are you sure you don't mean fapp = 50N??
,.
2007-12-23 04:22:47 · answer #1 · answered by The Wolf 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
f = ma = P - F; where f is net force on a box of mass m = 5 kg accelerating at a = 6 m/sec^2, and P = 5 kg-m/sec^2 (aka Newton). Solve for F, the friction force, = P - ma...you can do the math.
Here's the physics...a mass accelerates if and only if the net force on it is f > 0. And, when there is friction, the net force is the push minus the friction force because friction force always acts in opposition to whatever push is applied.
BTW: The first answer is correct, this is an impossible problem because f = P - F = ma = 5*6 = 30 = 5 - F; so that F = 5 - 30 < 0 and that isn't possible.
2007-12-23 12:23:09 · answer #2 · answered by oldprof 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Unless I'm being retarded and missing something, I don't see how a force of 5N can accelerate a mass of 5kg at more than 1 m s^-2 even in the absence of friction.
a = F/m
2007-12-23 12:19:33 · answer #3 · answered by David G 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Interesting.
Fnet=ma
Fnet=5(6.0)
Fnet=30N
Which is more than the applied force, which would suggest that the friction force is 25N but has the same direction as the applied force, which obviously doesn't make sense. But I'm only in HS physics, so this question might be beyond me.
2007-12-23 12:18:29 · answer #4 · answered by Jonathan P 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋