2007-12-23 01:46:49 · 9 answers · asked by lizzieport@btinternet.com 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Depends on how you took titleand the state you live in . IF the property was conveyed to a married couple as tenants by the entirety, yes.
IF you took tittle as tenants in common and each got 1/4, you can sell your 1/4 interest without anyone'd permission.
For a property to totally change hands, all parties in title must sign off; if it's 30 heirs in an estate,. all 30 have to sign (I've seen that)
2007-12-23 02:32:14 · answer #1 · answered by wizjp 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
When I went to sell my house, they even sent letters to my two daughters who were both over 18 to consent to the sale even though they were not on the deeds, may have been because the property was bought as part of a divorce settlement, so I don't really know for sure, but the CAB might be able to advice you on this one. Good luck
2007-12-23 09:58:17 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Usually all parties are required to agree on sale. Yet it so happens that one out of the all refuses, and in that situation, you can buy the shares of the remaining owners and can have possession to their shares extent or so much portion of the property the sellers are holding in possession. But that does not mean that you have become absolute owner in possession. The person who has not agreed to sell the property can file a suit for partition of property to get the property demarcated/partitioned according to value and share. He is entitled to claim any portion of the property as his, so long the partition does not attain finality by a decree. Courts also recognize private partition between and among the parties and a deed executed for the same is admissible in evidence even it has not been got registered.
2007-12-23 10:04:24 · answer #3 · answered by Syed Mujib 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yes
2007-12-25 17:25:17 · answer #4 · answered by Captain Sarcasm 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Tenants in Common can sell their part but joint owners are in the position that if one wants to sell the other has to or buy the other out
2007-12-23 12:11:00 · answer #5 · answered by Scouse 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes, all parties must agree to the sale, and it must be in writing.
2007-12-23 09:50:20 · answer #6 · answered by Neescousin 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, you most certainly do.
2007-12-24 19:08:59 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, you certainly do.
2007-12-23 11:28:09 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yep... if they don't then it's not a completed contract.
2007-12-23 10:02:45 · answer #9 · answered by John R 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋