We are no longer together and she is indian with her permanant residence visa now. shes struggling with the payments and Im afraid if she were to lets say dissapear back to her parents in india, because im her legally married husband is the mortgage debt going to fall on my head? the mortgage is in her name only. Am I liable for the mortgage if she were to defer? thanks
2007-12-23 00:41:16 · 20 answers · asked by Humble Bee 2 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
call a lawyer and ask the people who know just to be sure and put your mind at rest
2007-12-23 01:10:37 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, but when I seperated from my ex I discovered that I had a bad credit reference because of his bad debts, which was only resolved when I sent through my divorce papers later, so if you are in the UK I suggest you take the free half an hour with a solicitor, contact the Citizens advice bureau for advice, good luck
2007-12-23 08:48:24 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
you are not liable for payments if you separated before she took the mortgage. as it is her mortgage in her name it is not your responsibility so don't ever let her tell you any different.
keep a record (pref. with a solicitor) of the date you separated to avoid any come back, as women can get VERY nasty in divorce. so cover your back. good luck.
2007-12-23 08:48:38 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Oh, boy, are you in a bad situation, as you are still legally married you are still in the eyes of the law, legally & financially bound, this is why they invented legal seperations, this protects both partys in situations such as the one you are going thru, so I urge you to either divorce as fast as you can, or at least file for legal seperation. I must also tell you that even if she were to rent a movie & never returns it & its sent to a bill collector, you are responsible for that to, anything small or big that she does will come back at you, so dont waste your time, protect yourself!
2007-12-23 08:53:52 · answer #4 · answered by penelope 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No as you have signed nothing to say you guarentee the mortgage or will take over the payments! Legally it can't be done!
2007-12-23 08:45:25 · answer #5 · answered by jonnyneedshelp 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes and No depends on what state you live in. Certain States are communcal States which means that everything is 50/50 to include debts made by your spouse.
2007-12-23 10:08:25 · answer #6 · answered by ckamk1995 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
See a lawyer.
As a rule, No.
But it may become a credit issue.
In USA local and state laws govern this things. Example a community property state or commonwealth state ------.
So find out for sure.
Work it out, just this item, buy her out or the home then sell it at even at a loss to keep it all clean and manageable.
2007-12-23 08:57:37 · answer #7 · answered by minootoo 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
A husband is not liable for their wife's debts and vice versa
2007-12-23 08:45:37 · answer #8 · answered by reggie 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
She went and took the mortgage herself, it's not your debt. Don't worry about it.
2007-12-23 08:51:42 · answer #9 · answered by ZCT 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
take over the payments, and rent it out to refugees, they pay the mortgage and you get a free house...
isnt england wonderful? (ironic)
2007-12-23 08:50:01 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋