it says in the bible that when a woman gives birth to a son she is unclean for so many days- i forgot how many! and when she gives birth to a daugther she is unclean for double of the days than a boy...
can someone please explain this because i dont get it!!
thank you
2007-12-22 22:46:23 · 15 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Why do you have to "get it" it was Gods instruction for pre Christian Israelites.
Remember the law was a tutor leading to the Christ, a man child not a female child.
Edit
To the lady below me, THE BIBLE WAS WRITTEN BY GOD NOT MAN, HE KNOWS EXACTLY HOW WE ARE MADE. FAR MORE THAN ANY DOCTOR YOU CARE TO NAME.
2007-12-22 22:51:23 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 6⤋
Leviticus 12:2 "Say to the Israelites: 'A woman who becomes pregnant and gives birth to a son will be ceremonially unclean for seven days, just as she is unclean during her monthly period. 3 On the eighth day the boy is to be circumcised. 4 Then the woman must wait thirty-three days to be purified from her bleeding. She must not touch anything sacred or go to the sanctuary until the days of her purification are over. 5 If she gives birth to a daughter, for two weeks the woman will be unclean, as during her period. Then she must wait sixty-six days to be purified from her bleeding.
K & D commentary on the Old Testament
Lev 12:5 -
But if she had given birth to a girl, she was to be unclean two weeks (14 days), as in her menstruation, and then after that to remain at home 66 days. The distinction between the seven (or fourteen) days of the “separation for her infirmity,” and the thirty-three (or sixty-six) days of the “blood of her purifying,” had a natural ground in the bodily secretions connected with child-birth, which are stronger and have more blood in them in the first week (lochia rubra) than the more watery discharge of the lochia alba, which may last as much as five weeks, so that the normal state may not be restored till about six weeks after the birth of the child.
The prolongation of the period, in connection with the birth of a girl, was also founded upon the notion, which was very common in antiquity, that the bleeding and watery discharge continued longer after the birth of a girl than after that of a boy (Hippocr. Opp. ed. Kühn. i. p. 393; Aristot. h. an. 6, 22; 7, 3, cf. Burdach, Physiologie iii. p. 34). But the extension of the period to 40 and 80 days can only be accounted for from the significance of the numbers, which we meet with repeatedly, more especially the number forty (see at Exo_24:18).
2007-12-22 22:55:28 · answer #2 · answered by Martin S 7 · 2⤊ 2⤋
I don't think anyone "gets" that. Bonding? circumcision? I am grasping at straws here. I really have no clue. Does it really matter? Do you plan to follow these rules anyway? What difference would it make if you did? How would this ceremonial uncleanness affect you?-- there is no temple from which you would be restricted. Then again, there might be a reason for it. People wondered for years why children were to be circumcised on the eighth day, then recently we learned that that was the day the clotting factor peaked. (It is Leviticus 12)
2007-12-22 22:56:59 · answer #3 · answered by hasse_john 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Here we are back to the ancient Jewish ideas of ritual and ritual uncleanness. This uncleanness simply meant that the woman could not partake in Jewish worship and her husband could not have sex with her until this period was over.
2007-12-22 23:35:02 · answer #4 · answered by Bibs 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Did you know they recently found a copy of the gospel of mary magdalen?
The bible has been deliberately constructed to give a lower status to women.
http://www.thejesusmyth.com/toolbox/the-bible
2007-12-22 23:13:50 · answer #5 · answered by Jesusa 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It is due to the fact that females were seen as more susceptable to evil, eve and the whole apple saga, and so because of this new mothers took longer to become clean after giving birth to a female! Hope this helps
2007-12-22 22:54:52 · answer #6 · answered by jonnyneedshelp 3 · 2⤊ 3⤋
This is the clear example that Bible is writteb by humans or altered by them how ever we have the QURAN which dose not have any misunderstanding and misleading words which is true and preserved gift of ALLAH.
2007-12-22 23:23:23 · answer #7 · answered by Islam=Peace 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Islam is way ahead of Christianity and Judaism in this respect
Menstruating women arent forced to live away from their families or be touched
Women in Islam vs Women in Judaism and Christianity
UNCLEAN IMPURE WOMAN ?
http://www.themodernreligion.com/women/w_comparison_full.htm#_Toc335566658
2007-12-22 23:00:14 · answer #8 · answered by shaybani_yusuf 5 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Look, the Bible was written in a time that is so different from our society today. We know alot more about medicine and science than people knew back then. They had certain beliefs about things that were simply NOT based on science since there really was no science to speak of. That's why I laugh when people want to take the Bible so LITERALLY. The Bible is a wonderful tool to use to live your life in a peaceful, loving way. It's an important book as a Christian myself but I don't take every word as literal. This is a perfect example of the things in the Bible that shouldn't be taken literally.
2007-12-22 22:52:14 · answer #9 · answered by bestadvicechick 6 · 2⤊ 8⤋
Just another things to keep women out of men's business in those days, and please do not go see a preacher or priest about this because they are not going to tell you the truth.
2007-12-22 22:54:37 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 6⤊ 1⤋
If she is unclean for many days then she committed adultry to have the child.
2007-12-22 22:52:48 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 4⤋