What did Jesus mean when He said, "My Father and I are one"........found in John 10:30
2007-12-22 14:09:46 · 14 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
He meant that he is God, of course! He is God in the flesh. But he is no less God than the Father is.
2007-12-22 15:18:09 · answer #1 · answered by Blue Eyed Christian 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
That Jesus had unity with the Father;
compare to 1John 1:3; Colossians 1:1- 22.
2007-12-22 22:53:58 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
He meant that they are one in purpose. The Son would never do anything against the Father's will.
The Father and Son are separate physical and immortal beings. This whole notion that the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost are literally 'one' is ridiculous. It came about after several councils of uninspired men were brought about to remove many plain and precious truths from the Gospel. One of the results was the Nicene Creed.
What is even more ridiculous is how valiantly people defend this belief for the sake of tradition. They hand pick misinterpreted verses from the Bible as support, while the rest of it screams to the contrary. Like the many times when Jesus Christ prays to His Father. Or when He is baptized, and the Father speaks - just to name a few.
2007-12-22 22:21:38 · answer #3 · answered by catalyst 4 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Do you know the trinity? The Father, Son, & Holy spirit. What I've heard is that all of them are 1. They are the same people,but in diffrent form. God humbled himself to Jesus as a baby to tell the world about him. And let them know there is a way to salvation. Thats what the bible is based on. God couldhold the whole universe in his hand but then became Jesus. its very confusing to understand because God only made our brains so complex. Its very difficult to understand. Thats the best I can do.
2007-12-22 22:18:19 · answer #4 · answered by Bree_to_the_anna 2 · 4⤊ 1⤋
That Jesus was the exact image of God upon the earth.
That Jesus had the FULL authority of God.
That Jesus was in perfect harmony with God.
That Jesus had the full backing and endorsement of God.
God would find no fault in the doings of Jesus.
Jesus was the PERFECT and AUTHORITIVE representative of God.
in modern day terms-----Jesus had FULL power of attorney to act and disclose on God's behalf. to deal and speak with Jesus, was to speak and deal with God..........
2007-12-23 01:42:33 · answer #5 · answered by †LifeOnLoan† 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
John, chapter 10, in which Jesus is reported to have said, “I and the Father are one.” People quote it out of context, this verse does imply Jesus’ divinity. However, when the Jews accused him of claiming divinity, based on that statement, “Jesus answered them, ‘Is it not written in your law, “I said, Ye are gods?” [15]- [16] He clarified for them, with a scriptural example well known to them, that he was using the metaphorical language of the prophets which should not be interpreted as ascribing divinity to himself or to other human beings.
Further evidence is drawn from verses ten and eleven of the Gospel according to John, chapter 14, where people asked Jesus to show them the Father, and he was supposed to have said: “Do you not believe that I am in the Father and the Father in me? The words that I say to you I do not speak on my own authority; but the Father who dwells in me does his works. 11Believe me that I am in the Father and the Father in me; or else believe me for the sake of the works themselves.”
These phrases would imply Jesus’ divinity, if the remainder of the same Gospel is ignored. However, nine verses later, in John 14:20, Jesus is also recorded as saying to his disciples, “In that day you will know that I am in my Father, and you in me, and I in you.” Thus, if Jesus’ statement “I am in the Father and the Father is in me” means that he is God, then so were his disciples. This symbolic statement means oneness of purpose and not oneness of essence. The symbolic interpretation is further emphasized in John 17:20-21, wherein Jesus said, “20 I do not pray for these only, but also for those who believe in me through their word, 21that they may all be one; even as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be in us, so that the world may believe that thou has sent me.” [17]
2007-12-22 23:06:58 · answer #6 · answered by jafar sheikh 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
That he is God.
edit:
Jesus is the image of the invisible God.
edit:
God is a spirit, who dwells in the body made by and for him through the process that human beings come into the world, and his name is the name above every name, Jesus.
2007-12-22 22:12:38 · answer #7 · answered by hisgloryisgreat 6 · 4⤊ 2⤋
That he is God. However, a lot of people misinterpret this: they think that Jesus meant that he and only he is God. But Jesus said this to make us all realize the same truth about ourselves (we and God are one).
2007-12-22 22:15:26 · answer #8 · answered by jill45690 4 · 2⤊ 2⤋
It can mean many things to many Christ-based religions.
It can mean that Christ was God in the flesh, or was a part of God sent to Earth to redeem mankind, or that he was of the same enlightenment or in the same mentality as God, or is at peace with himself as God is.. Many meanings.
2007-12-22 22:16:49 · answer #9 · answered by Another Guy 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Jesus was God manifested in the flesh.
2007-12-22 22:14:18 · answer #10 · answered by paula r 7 · 5⤊ 2⤋