2007-12-22 13:53:43 · 13 answers · asked by Mr. Bodhisattva 6 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
The answer is much simpler. The "virgin birth" story originated later in the Christian church as a result of mistranslation of the Greek word parthenos. The word used in Luke for Mary was parthenos which actually just meant 'young woman' and not 'never had sex'. According to Luke, Joseph was Jesus' father just as Mary was Jesus' mother.
(Yes, you fundamentalists, give me those thumbs down.)
2007-12-22 14:18:01 · answer #1 · answered by Taivo 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Matthew traces Jesus' genealogy through Joseph's blood line but at the end it does not say that Joseph was the father of Jesus it say he was the husband of Mary. In Luke the genealogy is traced through Mary's blood line. Mary was the physical mother of Jesus but Joseph was not His physical father. However, the blood lines are given to show that Jesus did have the legal right to the throne of David. In fact, He is the only one that can show that legal right to the throne of David. If you need more info about this genealogy email me.
And by the way my father's genealogy is identical to mine except for the last person's name.
2007-12-22 14:06:16 · answer #2 · answered by mr_e_cowboy 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because it says in the Bible in the Old Testament I think, that God would send his son to the family from the line of David (the man after God's own heart) a royal family. They wrote the genealogy to prove that he was in fact a"descendant" of King David and was in fact the promised son of God. This showed which tribe Jesus belonged to and would have grown up in. It was also customary to known peoples genealogy.
2007-12-22 14:04:04 · answer #3 · answered by ...29 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because Jesus' mother was Mary, who was married to Joseph, therefore, Joseph's genealogy is passed to Jesus'.
2007-12-22 13:58:55 · answer #4 · answered by mysongsrhis 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because Joseph was Jesus' father according to the Law. He was also a member of the House of David, which was a requirement of the Messiah.
However, Jewish people trace ancestry through the mother's lineage, and for Christ to have been considered a Jew, his mother had to be a Jew of the House of David. That's why you also have Mary's ancestry listed in the Bible.
2007-12-22 14:01:01 · answer #5 · answered by Wolfeblayde 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
well both Joseph & mary were of the tribe of Judah, so there could be no dispute of Jesus ancestery
You see the prophecies all pointed to the Messiah coming from the tribe of Judah, see gen 49:10
Jesus wasn't born as a royal person Just a lowly carpenter's son. He became King designate & Messiah at his baptism
2007-12-22 14:00:30 · answer #6 · answered by zorrro857 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It can't be royalty as neither Joseph nor Mary were descended from Solomon, and hence would have had less of a claim to the throne than I do to the English throne.
2007-12-22 14:01:14 · answer #7 · answered by Pirate AM™ 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Because Joseph's Jesus's father.
2007-12-22 13:56:24 · answer #8 · answered by jill45690 4 · 1⤊ 3⤋
It was to show that Jesus was royalty on Earth and in Heaven.
If Joseph weren't royalty, which Mary was, then Jesus wouldn't be considered royalty.
2007-12-22 13:58:07 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
It is to prove tat the promised one was from line of Judah, not some arabic-speaking, non-jews prophets etc....
2007-12-22 14:04:55 · answer #10 · answered by guchii. 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋