I've got a friend who wears -1.50 eyeglasses. She claims she can't see anything without them. Yet I have a higher prescription (-3.50 and -3.75) and I can function without them (Im not very comfortable but I wouldn't die if I had to take them off)
So, the question here is: is he just overreacting? or am I the "exception" here?
2007-12-22 03:52:36 · 3 answers · asked by strawberryfields 2 in Health ➔ Optical
i'm sorry about the she/he thing my friend's a SHE , she's called sophie.
I just wanted to ask it in a "general" way so used he at first but ended up making a mess out of that.
2007-12-22 03:56:13 · update #1
Different strokes for different folks. People vary in their tolerance of blur, your friend likes to see things very clearly and you are not as fussy. I have some patients who wear their -0.50 glasses full time and others who only use their -5.00 glasses for driving and movies.
Neither one of you is over or under reacting; you are each your own individual and you are what you are.
2007-12-22 06:55:55 · answer #1 · answered by Judy B 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
her eyes will get worse, or stay the same. i have a prescription casiue my eyes are horrible and i never wear the glasses, and my eyes are only getting worse. so tell her to wear them.
2007-12-22 04:00:57 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Your eye sight get's worse.
2007-12-22 04:01:37 · answer #3 · answered by Fatumata K 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋