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2007-12-21 00:40:57 · 8 answers · asked by Jill 1 in Arts & Humanities History

8 answers

It would be nice to say that it was for ethical/moral reasons, but it had more to do with economics than anything else.

2007-12-21 00:49:04 · answer #1 · answered by cynic7777 2 · 2 1

Depends on where you are talking about.

America did it because of social change. A large amount of the population objected to the principle of people being owned by others. They influenced the government to change laws to make it illegal. There was also an economic issue being used as well.

In England things were a little different. There was already a social movement with political backing, there was a big man that made a huge difference there. John Newton, famous Christian hymn writer ("Amazing Grace," etc.) had been involved in the slave trade for a number of years and was eventually enslaved himself. His story of his life in the trade, his slavery, and his escape created a public outcry against the treatment of slaves in some situations. Just a little while before his death, Newton was able to witness Parliament outlaw slavery in England.

Still other areas were forced to abandon slavery. At least one war that England fought was to end the Muslim slave trade in an area. Some of the other wars England fought had the same effect.

2007-12-21 08:49:07 · answer #2 · answered by Yun 7 · 1 1

Actually, slavery in England's Caribbean possessions ended because of economic warfare with France. Sugar was produced in the Caribbean islands (transplanted from Indonesia) and was only profitable through slavery because it was such dangerous and hard work that a disposable labor force was required. When the chemical process was found in Germany to retrieve sugar from beets in the early 1800's, England's Kings still held lands in Hanover so they had access to the sugar which was produced through serfs because it was a less dangerous method, but France had no access to the technology. England actually ended slavery to try to force France to have to do so as well, with the intent of destroying France's sugar trade.

America's end to slavery ended through public appeals from the northern free states and from some evangelicals in the southern slave states, but this sentiment was actually manufactured and manipulated by industrial interests in the USA. Because cotton and tobacco (both slave crops) had been the only products that USA could sell for hard money, the Southern aristocracy had built the economy of USA especially in the north. By the 1840s, Northern industrialists no longer needed Southern money to such an extent, and felt that free labor could actually be exploited more efficiently.

2007-12-21 10:17:03 · answer #3 · answered by sdvwallingford 6 · 0 0

Who is they? Have you ever been to Central America?, Africa, S.E. Asia? It is alive and well. It is one of the oldest institutions even spoken of in the Bible and shown on Egyptian writing. It is not ended it is just not spoken of.
If you mean U.S. slavery, it is because we grew up and saw what an abomination it was. We also had the advent of machinery to do the work at about the same period of time. So economically is was advantageous also. Slavery is expensive and very hard to maintain.

2007-12-21 20:39:29 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

WHo is they? Slavery is still legal in some parts of the world. It generally comes down to the children of slaves being born into bondage upsets too many people. also because of slave rape the children are related to the owners. Slaves were freed prematurely in the US to cripple the southern economy, stop the migration of run-aways, And eliminate the 2/3 vote the slaves had by proxy. It shifted the political power to the norths emerging industrial economy.

2007-12-21 08:51:28 · answer #5 · answered by frijolero 3 · 0 1

I think a guy called william wilberforce (englishman)
took it upon him self to make a fuss about the inhuman treatment of his fellow human beings he was a methodist and went around making every one connected with the trade feel guiulty about it, cool!

2007-12-21 08:49:49 · answer #6 · answered by anthony p 3 · 1 0

most of us are still economically enslaved when we take out a mortgage or buy anything which is taxed. they just dont whip us any more. our minds are allso enslaved if we see people in a catorgorical way. i.e black, white, christian, muslim, criminal, terorist, upper class or lower class thats how they devide our minds and keep us in trouble so big gangs who pledge their loyalty can defend the biggest gangs.

2007-12-21 08:55:09 · answer #7 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

exactly, and if the Civl War had not started

they would have been emancipated within a year as
the tide was turning - realizing it would be cheaper to pay them wages, and let them fend for themselves - rather than
have to provide their upkeep

all of us indentured servants - are still slaves to the clock

*sigh*

2007-12-21 08:50:28 · answer #8 · answered by tom4bucs 7 · 1 1

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