Why did He continually reject the cup?
2007-12-20 22:47:30 · 16 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Jesus didn't drink from the cup
Mark 15:23
Matthew 27:34
Luke 23:36
2007-12-20 23:00:04 · update #1
He did not reject the cup, which symbolizes suffering, from His Father.
the verses quoted about his refusal to drink are out of context, those were literal. please read it again in context.
2007-12-20 23:38:55 · answer #1 · answered by dagger 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It was filled with vinegar and gall Psalm 69:21 , Matthew 27:34. It was a diluted poison to help ease the pain , and Jesus wanted it not.
2007-12-21 08:14:04 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Jesus didn't reject, He took the cup. If He hadn't we would probably be living under Rome's rule today.
2007-12-21 07:14:40 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Indeed, you and Lakely are onto the grace and truth of the matter of grace and truth came by Jesus Christ: John 1:17, and notably for comparison of law and lie given by Moses.
Looking closer at the allegoric mystery we notice he rejected the "mingled" drink, prefering only the pure drink; Which is allegory for rejecting grace + law, prefering pure grace only; or rejecting the truth + lie, prefering the truth only.
Which things are an allegory: Galatians 4.
As for the will of God, it is the same in OT & NT: "I will have mercy, and not sacrifice", which is allegory for I will have grace, and not law: Ps 40:6; Ps 51:16; Hos 6:6; Mt 9:13; Mt 12:7; Heb 10. And scriptures were written "aforetime" for our "learning": Rom 15:4, to go and "learn" what it means, as noted in Mt 9:13. So, it's as if the ultimate matrix to navigate through, as if going through the valley of the shadow of death, and finding grace in time, to help solve the allegoric mystery.
Confirmation is in 2Cor 5:19, where it notes that God was in Christ reconciling the world unto himself, NOT (law) imputing sin unto them. Selah. For law imputed sin, when "it is finished", brings forth death (not life): James 1:15. And law the strength (strong man) of sin's death sting: 1Cor 15:56.
So there is much to re-learn about the seven last utterances, rather than blindly follow what churches teach and preach; For While they promise them liberty, they themselves are the servants of corruption: for of whom a man is overcome, of the same is he brought in bondage: 2Peter 2:19.
Keep studying to shew thyself approved unto God; But also remember it's "allegory": Gal 4 and "mystery": noted 20 times, and allegoric mystery has lots of twists to it.
Perhaps you could help me with this unfinished project:
http://www.godshew.org/Easter3.htm
But first, probate the will of God:
http://www.godshew.org/GodShew4.htm
Grace --> Mercy ---> Peace with you all. Amen.
2007-12-21 07:34:57 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Jesus being every pary man and every part God,felt pain knew the suffering he would go thru and more importantly did not reject the cup he fullfilled the promise!
2007-12-21 06:59:07 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 1⤋
You may want to read that a bit closer. He did not want to take the cup if there was another way but He was willingly placing Himself in the Father's will and that did mean that He would not be able to avoid the cup.
Our knowing that He was wanting another way but chose to deny Himself for the will of the Father is a wonderful display of how He told us to live our lives by denying our own desires to align ourselves in His will and therefore in the Father's will.
Hope that helps.
2007-12-21 06:54:52 · answer #6 · answered by gilliamichael 3 · 7⤊ 1⤋
He said "Father if thy will let this, cup pass before me." Jesus knew what he was about to go through. He was asking the Father if it was okay to not take the cup he didn't want to go through it (who would?) but he went though with it anyway in response to the will of the Father He still obeyed. Sometimes God makes us do things we don't want to do but thats not disobedience or sin to not want to do them. Not doing them would be the sin. He still obeyed even though he didn't want to go through with the cross.
2007-12-21 06:56:13 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
The ' cup' was
not literal, but symbolic of his suffering.
And only his Father in heaven could change or remove it...change the situation.
Jesus had been sent to fulfill scripture.
(MATTHEW 26:54) In that case, how would the Scriptures be fulfilled that it must take place this way?”
2007-12-21 07:18:36 · answer #8 · answered by pugjw9896 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
He didn't "reject" it
He expressed that if there was another way that he would rather do the other way. But there was no other way. The sweats of drops of blood and tears show us the emotional turmoil and suffering Jesus went through.
from Luke 39(BB) And he came out and went,(BC) as was his custom, to(BD) the Mount of Olives, and the disciples followed him. 40(BE) And when he came to(BF) the place, he said to them, (BG) "Pray that you may not(BH) enter into temptation." 41And he withdrew from them about a stone’s throw, and(BI) knelt down and prayed, 42saying, (BJ) "Father, if you are willing, remove(BK) this cup from me.(BL) Nevertheless, not my will, but yours, be done." 43And there appeared to him(BM) an angel from heaven, strengthening him. 44And(BN) being in an agony he prayed more earnestly; and his sweat became like great drops of blood falling down to the ground.[g] 45And when he rose from prayer, he came to the disciples and found them sleeping for sorrow, 46and he said to them, "Why are you sleeping? Rise and(BO) pray that you may not enter into temptation."
He became sin who knew no sin that we might become the righteousness of God in Him
Corinthians
2007-12-21 06:52:04 · answer #9 · answered by whirlingmerc 6 · 6⤊ 1⤋
he asked his Father to take the cup away but if that is his Father's will, then Thy will be done. he surrendered himself fully to his father's will and that was to submit himself to torture and humiliation and sacrificed himself to save man from sin.
2007-12-21 07:04:56 · answer #10 · answered by chizcake 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋