Why do Jehovah witnessess translate the Greek word Christos = Jehovah??

Question

New World Translation, 1 Cor 10:9
Neither let us put Jehovah to the test, as some of them put [him] to the test, only to perish by the serpents.


From 1 Cor 10:8-10, we see that the Apostle Paul was referring to the incident where the LORD (ie Jehovah) was wroth with His people who tempted Jehovah, who is revealed as Christ (1 Cor 10:9) and sent fiery serpents (Num 21:6-9). . .


KJV: 1Co 10:9 Neither let us tempt Christ, as some of them also tempted, and were destroyed of serpents.


q1) Why do Jehovah witnessess translated in 1 Cor 10:9, the Greek word Christos = Jehovah??

q2) Does this not confirm that the Lord Jesus Christ is Jehovah??

Answer 1

So is this what do you do on your day off?

God's personal name is taken out from your Bibles so isn't that changing it too? His name is not LORD since that is a title.

Answer 2

Readings in some early manuscripts say “the Christ” others “the Lord”

The RV, ASV, NASB, NIV, ISV follow the ancient manuscripts Sinaiticus and Vaticanus here and say: "Neither let us tempt THE LORD" (RV). The Nestle-Aland text also was originally read "the Lord".

These texts uses Jehovah I think.

J18 Christian Greek Scriptures, Heb., by Isaac Salkinson and C. D. Ginsburg, London.
J22 Christian Greek Scriptures, Heb., by United Bible Societies, Jerusalem, 1979.
J23 Christian Greek Scriptures, Heb., by J. Bauchet, Rome, 1975


And No, this doesn't confirm that Jesus is Jehovah. Because if this text if translated "the Christ" that means that Jesus is the SAME PERSON as Jehovah. But for the Trinity doctrine, Jesus is NOT The Father Jehovah and are DIFFERENT.

Jesus’ Father is Jehovah.
Luke 23:46
6 And Jesus called with a loud voice and said: “Father, into your hands I entrust my spirit”

Jesus quoted Psalms 31:5 where it states “Into your hand I entrust my spirit” Who is his Father? The text continues “You have redeemed me, O Jehovah the God of truth.”

Answer 3

The use of God's name in 1Cor 10:9 is the accurate rendering of the word Kupiov.
Kupiov can be applied to Jehovah or Jesus Christ
Below are the three outside references that confirm the use of God's name Jehovah.

Christian Greek Scriptures, Heb., by Isaac Salkinson and C. D. Ginsburg, London

Christian Greek Scriptures, Heb., by United Bible Societies, Jerusalem, 1979.

Christian Greek Scriptures, Heb., by J. Bauchet, Rome, 1975


Besides, the use Christ's name in the verse would not make sense with what is being talked about, ---which is the account told, in Numbers 21.
Numbers 21:6 in particular.
After all, it was Jehovah that sent the serpents, not Christ

Answer 4

The Greek word used at 1 Cor 10:9 is (Kupiov) "Lord" not Christ.

Who was tested at Num. 21:6-9? Jehovah was not Jesus.

Please get your accounts right.

.

Answer 5

You are playing into the trinity, which Jehovah's Witnesses do not belive in.
What about the symbol of a fish? Objects dated as far back as the second century C.E. have been found bearing this figure along with the Greek word for fish, ICHTHÝS. This is understood by many as a cipher for the Greek expression Iesous CHristos THeou Yios Soter, meaning “Jesus Christ, Son of God, Savior.”

Answer 6

Jehovah witnesses believe that Jesus was once the Archangel Michael and that Jehovah is Jesus' heavenly Father. Two separate beings. Not part of the Trinity.
I do not think that they translate Christos to mean Jehovah...I believe they believe that Jesus was in the image of Jehovah (the Father) not that he WAS the father.

and, no, that does NOT confirm that the Lord Jesus Christ is Jehovah.

Answer 7

The vast majority of Christians never succumb to sexual immorality. Yet, we need to be careful that we do not allow ourselves to pursue a course that leads to a pattern of murmuring that could result in divine disapproval. Paul admonishes us: “Neither let us put Jehovah to the test, as some of [the Israelites] put him to the test, only to perish by the serpents. Neither be murmurers, just as some of them murmured, only to perish by the destroyer.” (1 Corinthians 10:9, 10) The Israelites murmured against Moses and Aaron—yes, even against God himself—complaining about the miraculously provided manna. (Numbers 16:41; 21:5)
The Apostle Paul at No time thought Jesus to be Jehovah. To say that Jesus is Jehovah is Idiocy.

Answer 8

Greetings, First, there should not be too much emphasis put on the occurrence of the Greek definite article or its absence. The use of THEOS without the article can be referring to Almighty God and hO THEOS can also be used of Christ (Jn 20:28). What is more significant is the differentiation here between one being called hO THEOS and another being called THEOS. The Word is not only a different PERSON than the Father, but a different THEOS also. So, two things confirm the accuracy of the NWT's rendering of Jn.1:1: Grammatically, the predicate noun and the immediate context. First, the term "god" in the clause "the Word was god" is a predicate. A predicate tells us something about the Word, not his identity. Therefore, the footnote in the NAB says: "'Was God': lack of a definite article with 'God' in Greek signifies predication rather than identification." It is describing Christ's nature, or more accurately a "quality" or characteristic. Also, because the word "God" is grammatically a *count noun* it means that Christ is a member of the class of "Gods." A count noun must be always be either definite (The God) or indefinite (a god), even when it carries a "qualitative" emphasis. And, no modern Trinitarian scholar who is worth his salt claims that "God" here is a definite noun. In most other places where the exact same grammatical structure occurs translators put an "a" in front of the predicate noun (e.g. "a prophet", "a slanderer" etc.). This would make it "a god" here. Translators place an "a" in most other occurrences of this structure but not at Jn.1:1 because of theological bias (This is an anarthrous predicate noun preceding the copulative verb: Mk.6:49; 11:32, Jn.4:19; 6:70; 8:44 (2x's); 9:17; 10:1,13,32; 12:6). The pre-verbal predicate nouns in these examples demand the addition of the indefinite article "a". Next, grammatically Jesus is here placed ontologically separate from “The God" (TON QEON) by the use of "PROS" (with). The use of "PROS" (with) shows there is a relationship between The God and the Word on the level of QEOS. Jesus cannot be the same as God because it twice states that Jesus is WITH "God" (Greek: The God). So we have two beings, both who are called "God" and *with* each other. The Trinity doctrine does not allow for "God" being with "God" since the three are only one God. To avoid this contradiction Trinitarians must subconsciously alter what the verse really says to "the Word was with the FATHER." But, logically and semantically, either there were two equal Gods with each other or there was one individual *described* as divine (a quality) who was with a second individual *identified* as The [Almighty] God. There are no other valid explanations. John was not saying that the Word was the same as The God who he was with but, rather, that the Word was godlike, divine, "a god." William Loader remarks: "The statement's meaning and so it's translation, must be determined from it's context. It could also be translated: 'the Word was a god' or 'the Word was divine'...Against [the translation 'the Word was God'] is the fact that the author has just said that the Word was 'with' God....The other two translations fit the context more smoothly."--The Christology of the Fourth Gospel Many other translators recognize that Jn.1:1 can be translated as "a god" because of the grammar and the context (Newcome, Thompson, Wilson's Diaglott, Robert Young's Commentary. Moffat and Goodspeed read "divine"). "Jn. 1:1 should rigorously be translated...and the word was a divine being."—John L. Mckenzie, Dictionary of the Bible According to Robert Young in his "Concise Commentary" the most "literal" way to translate John 1:1c is to call the Word "a God", not "God". Notice that Young admits that the most "literal" way to translate John 1:1c is to call the Word "a God", not "God". So the rendering "was a god" is the most accurate and still very literal. Many Greek Scholars recognize that Jn.1:1 does not identify Jesus as God, yet the poor lay people are kept in ignorance: "It is not that Jesus is God. Time and time again the Fourth Gospel speaks of God sending Jesus into the world. Time and time again we see Jesus praying to God....Nowhere does the New Testament identify Jesus with God."—From "William Barclay; A Spiritual Autobiography" "Christ would not be equated absolutely with God, but only described as a being of divine nature."—The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology (Rom. 9:5). In view of the above, the NWT's rendering here is an accurate rendering of God's Word, it breaks no 'rule' of grammar. It properly distinguishes between the one who is "HO THEOS," and the Word as "THEOS." It requires no mystical, incomprehensible interpretation; and no semantic equivocation. Yours, BAR-ANERGES

Answer 9

Greek expression Iesous "CHristos THeou Yios Soter,"

meaning “Jesus Christ, Son of God, Savior.”


I think you are mistaken on your greek word there!!

Christos is never translated as Jehovah.

Answer 10

They claim it was changed by the early church. Convenient, huh? Here is a another, more blatant example...

In the New World Translation (Watchtower translation for Jehovah Witnesses) the Revelation passages are purposely mistranslated.

Rev 1:8 [NWT] - “I am the Al´pha and the O·me´ga,” says Jehovah God, “the One who is and who was and who is coming, the Almighty.”

"Lord" is purposely mistranslated. The Greek kuvrio means "supreme ruler" and is not the name Jehovah or YHWH. This same word for "Lord" is used in referring to Jesus in many passages. Using the NWT rendering of "Lord" in the verse above, let's translate the same Greek word used in Matthew 12:8, (Jesus speaking) "For the Son of man is Jehovah God even of the sabbath day."
So, either the New World Translation is lying to suit their doctrine, or Jesus is Jehovah according to their own translation. This blatantly reveals the agenda of the Watchtower organization. They have added to Revelation and thus put themselves under the condemnation of Revelation 22:18.

Now let us look at Revelation 22:13...
Rev 22:13 [NWT] - "Look! I am coming quickly, and the reward I give is with me, to render to each one as his work is. I am the Al´pha and the O·me´ga, the first and the last, the beginning and the end."
Who is He that is coming quickly? According to Revelation 22:20, it is the Lord Jesus. What is the reward? It is our inheritance from the Lord Christ as stated in Colossians 3:24. If this is Jehovah speaking, it would be a contradiction, or that Jesus is God (which violates their doctrine).

The Jehovah Witnesses say they trust the King James Version translation of the original text. Let's do a comparison of the New World Translation of Revelation 1:11 with the King James Version.

Rev 1:11 [KJV] - saying, I am Alpha and Omega, the first and the last: and, What thou seest, write in a book, and send it unto the seven churches which are in Asia...

Rev 1:11 [NWT] - saying: “What you see write in a scroll and send it to the seven congregations...

Because it is obvious that Jesus is speaking in Rev 1:11, the New World Translation favors the Latin Vulgate in omitting this identification. This has been disputed, however, it should prove that the Jehovah Witnesses are not in agreement with the King James Version.