protestants work from the bible which was written and edited by roman catholics in the years leading up to the souncil of carthage (397):
http://www.catholicapologetics.org/ap030700.htm
but if protestantism is a real denomination, why would it use the catholic bible?
i realise protestants ignore many books (though the apocrypha was included in protestant bibles until a century ago) - but a catholic bible with a few hundred pages torn out is hardly a new text.
2007-12-20
06:11:36
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13 answers
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asked by
synopsis
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Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
chris: jesus didn't write any part of the bible. matthew wrote some, john, timothy ... but jesus didn't write any.
have you ever opened a bible?
2007-12-20
06:21:42 ·
update #1
dwayne: king james certainly made the first translation of the bible specifically aimed at gay males. but it was only a translation. king james never met jesus christ personally.
2007-12-20
06:23:56 ·
update #2
Great question. Anyone with a mind closed not quite as tightly as Chris's knows that the Catholic Church wrote, collected, selected, and canonized the Bible.
Of course, you have to read a little history outside the covers of the Bible, which has no verse saying what books are in the Bible, how to select a book for the Bible, or that the Bible is sufficient for understanding Christianity without the Church Jesus organized (this last part is in the Bible: Matt 16:18).
Now here's a corollary: Why do Protestants attack Catholicism with the Catholic Bible? Do they think the Catholics wrote, collected, selected, and canonized writings contrary to their own teachings?
Cheers,
Bruce
2007-12-20 07:59:58
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answer #1
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answered by Bruce 7
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right this is a few extra innovations on the placement: Why the Apocrypha isn't in the Protestant Bible. a million. no longer between the apocryphal books is written in the Hebrew language, which became into on my own utilized by ability of the inspired historians and poets of the previous testomony. All Apocryphal books are in Greek, different than one that is extant merely in Latin. 2. not one of the apocryphal writers laid declare to concept. 3. The apocryphal books weren't in any respect called sacred scriptures by ability of the Jews, custodians of the Hebrew scriptures (the apocrypha became into written previous to the recent testomony). in fact, the Jewish human beings rejected and destroyed the apocrypha after the overthow of Jerusalem in 70 A.D. 4. The apocryphal books weren't authorized between the sacred books in the process the 1st 4 centuries. 5. The Apocrypha incorporates remarkable statements which no longer merely contradict the "canonical" scriptures yet themselves. as an occasion, in the two Books of Maccabees, Antiochus Epiphanes is made to die 3 diverse deaths in 3 diverse places. 6. The Apocrypha incorporates doctrines in variance with the Bible, inclusive of prayers for the ineffective and sinless perfection.
2016-10-09 00:01:33
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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The Bible has been translated dozens if not hundreds of times in the English language. The methods of translation and ancient sources resorted to are varied. It has furthermore been translated into hundreds of other languages.
Generally today any translation is done by comparing the hundreds of ancient manuscripts available in the original Hebrew, Chaldee and Greek as well as many Latin and other ancient languages. There is no Protestant Bible per se, although certain denominations lean more towards one version than another. The subject is really too complex to be dealt with in this little window.
2007-12-20 06:28:47
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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Catholics own the Bible? I thought it was God's word. (2 Timothy 3:16) The Bible's inspired words do not belong to man or man's organizations.
Additional historical notes:
The trend toward including these additional writings as canonical was primarily initiated by Augustine (354-430 C.E.), although even he in later works acknowledged that there was a definite distinction between the books of the Hebrew canon and such “outside books.”
John Wycliffe, the Roman Catholic priest and scholar who, with the subsequent help of Nicholas of Hereford, in the 14th century made the first translation of the Bible into English, did not include the Apocrypha in his work, and the preface to this translation declared such writings to be “without authority of belief.”
2007-12-20 06:17:43
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answer #4
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answered by Questions_I_ask 2
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This is funny. Christ said:
And catholicism didn't exist until 300 AD, when Constantine invented it as a pagan cult.
I reply:
Yet the books of our Bible were decided upon after the church strayed into darkness some 100 years before. Doesn't this mean that our anti-Catholic friend Chris actually accepts the same NT books that this 'Whore of Babylon' chose for herself? I find that kinda funny.
This means that Chris is actually in agreement with the institution he so despises when it comes to the collection of inspired NT books of our Bible.
God Bless
Robin
2007-12-20 06:28:55
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answer #5
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answered by Robin 3
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Where is the Protestant Bible? Inside the Catholic Bible.
2007-12-20 06:21:38
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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Any Bible without an imprimatur is most likely a Protestant Bible.
2007-12-20 06:18:15
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answer #7
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answered by Averell A 7
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Their excuse is "Everything in the Bible is the word of God except what we don't agree with"
Honestly, I have no problem with Protestants, but I don't like the minority of them who think Catholics are going to hell because we read the whole bible, or because we ask the saints for help.
2007-12-20 06:15:47
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answer #8
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answered by Free Thinker A.R.T. ††† 6
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I wonder why they don't have Daniel 13 in their Bibles
2007-12-20 06:21:39
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answer #9
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answered by ! 6
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read the king James, at the front part of how and why it was written and why king James had it written.
2007-12-20 06:17:23
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answer #10
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answered by dwayne 2
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