2007-12-19 07:26:57 · 17 answers · asked by nad y 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
She was probably only engaged or promised to Joseph, as marriages were arranged in those days. Couples got married after their parents had arranged it and then learned to love one another as commanded by God. Since Mary was a virgin she and Joseph had not yet been married. The marriage was usually consummated on the wedding night when for the first time a couple would share a bed .This is the way it used to be in the USA for most couples before the sexual revolution in the 60's . Read the Bible , the truth is all there in black and white. Merry Christmas
2007-12-19 07:38:45 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Jewish betrothal was different. The young couple were expected to stay virgins until they married. When they became betrothed, they were considered "married" in a loose sense - they were promised to each other, but they hadn't taken their vows and they couldn't live or sleep together. Breaking an engagement was called "divorce", and was only to be done if there was fornication on the part of one of the people. The betrothal period lasted for about a year, during which the woman would prepare to be a wife and the man would prepare his home and organize his life so that he could care for his new wife. At the end, they had a marriage ceremony and were now fully married for life.
Anyways, so Mary was Joseph's espoused, or betrothed, wife. They were promised to each other, but had not yet taken those vows. Being a good sort of girl, she was a virgin when the angel appeared to her and told her that she would be the one to carry the Messiah. When Joseph found out he wasn't sure if she was telling the truth and so he considered divorcing her (breaking the engagement). But God appeared to him in a dream and told him that Mary was telling the truth, and told Joseph to marry her right away rather than waiting. So he did, but the Bible tells us that Joseph did not have relations with Mary until after Jesus was born, probably out of respect for the holiness of her unborn baby. So she ended up married and pregnant, but still a virgin. She gave birth as a virgin too.
Hope this made sense!
2007-12-19 15:37:13 · answer #2 · answered by Blue Eyed Christian 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
It goes to how Jewish marriages work and how they were practically done in those days.
There are 2 steps to a Jewish marriage. The first step is kiddushin, which is often poorly translated as 'betrothal'. Once a couple enters into kiddushin, they are legally married...so much so that a divorce is required to dissolve the relationship. However, during this phase, in those days, the lady remained in her father's house for usually 1 year while the groom built a home for himself and his wife. During this time, the couple did not have relations.
After the period of kiddushin, the lady is brought into the man's home. This is what most would consider the full marriage.
In the case of Joseph and Mary, it is clear that they had, at the very least, entered into kiddushin as at one point, Joseph wants to divorce her 'quietly'. This would be unnecessary if they weren't already married. The difficulty in the whole situation is why, if they had not consummated the marriage physically, was Mary travelling with Joseph unchaperoned. In this case, under Jewish Law, even if they had never had physical relations, they would not be believed and they would be considered fully married.
The story, as written, is untenable.
2007-12-19 15:38:53 · answer #3 · answered by mzJakes 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
The blessed mother of God was forever virgin. When she married Joseph, he was in his late seventies and she was very young, probably between 14 and 16 years old. It was not unusual for an older widowed man to remarry and have a marriage without consummation.
Some misinterpret the following verse to mean that she was not forever virgin:
Mat 1:25 DRB) And he knew her not till she brought forth her first born son: and he called his name Jesus.
People misinterpret the word "till" to mean that the marriage was consummated later. What the author was saying was that she was virgin until the time of Jesus' birth but does not in any way suggest that she did not remain virgin, which she did. The fact that Jesus entrusted St. John to her care shows that the blessed mother had no other children. I pray this helps.
In Christ
Fr. Joseph
2007-12-19 15:48:20 · answer #4 · answered by cristoiglesia 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
There was in their culture a period of betrothal, usually lasting a year. The couple were considered to be married, though they were not. It was during that time that Mary became pregnant by the Holy Spirit, the immaculate, or a "clean" conception.
When Joseph found out, he thought to put her away in a private manner so as not to shame her, but God revealed to him what the real deal was.
2007-12-19 15:34:19 · answer #5 · answered by Jed 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Mary and Joseph married while she was carrying Jesus and the Bible says she remained a virgin until after Jesus was born.
2007-12-19 15:31:27 · answer #6 · answered by Jouvert 5 · 1⤊ 2⤋
jewish marriage was alittle different back then. Jews who were to wed were considered married up to a year before the actual ceremony. (no sex involved) that is why when Joseph found out , he considered divorce because in all sense of the word, he was married.
2007-12-19 15:41:24 · answer #7 · answered by dwn04142003 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Mary conceived prior to her marriage to Joseph.
2007-12-19 15:30:31 · answer #8 · answered by joseph8638 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In those days, marriage was in the 'eyes of God' and not done threw courts. It was God who gave her Jesus, not Joseph and he never touched her threw her pregnancy as this was both their commitments to God. God only has to say 'let it be' and it is!
2007-12-19 15:32:42 · answer #9 · answered by Lynda G 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
She was not married when she got pregnant, but they married before she gave birth.
2007-12-19 15:32:57 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋