Okay, I *think* I have it. Of course, I've thought that a few times now. :-) Let's suppose that the proposition is true, and that R = U{[x_j, y_j]}.
First, I can say that part of the answer to your hint is that the set of endpoints--let's call it E--is closed; this is obvious, since R\E is the union of the open intervals (x_j, y_j), and hence is itself open.
But E is more than that. To see this, pick any x_j in E, and consider the set Yj = {y_k: k in N} ∩ (-∞,x_j). (In other words, Yj is all of the y_k's that are less than x_j.) Note that Yj is a subset of E, and is bounded above by x_j; since E is closed, by the least upper bound property Yj has a least upper bound L in E. But clearly L = x_j, for if not, then the interval (L,x_j) is uncovered by the set of closed intervals.
Since x_j is not in Yj, this means that x_j is a limit point of Yj, and hence of E. By a similar argument, every y_j is also a limit point of E. Therefore, E isn't just closed--it's perfect! But, perfect sets in R are uncountable [see, e.g. Rudin's Principles of Mathematical Analysis, theorem 2.43--at least in the 3rd edition], while E is countable!
Therefore we have a contradiction, and so R *cannot* be covered by such intervals.
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It occurred to me after the fact that there is a much simpler way to show that every point in E is a limit point.
Let x_j in E, and let m in N. Then there must be a y_j_m in (x_j - 1/m, x_j), else that interval is uncovered by the set of closed intervals. Thus the sequence {y_j_m: m in N} converges to x_j, and so x_j is a limit point of E. A similar argument holds for any y_j.
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2007-12-18 14:51:45
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answer #1
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answered by jeredwm 6
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