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are color-blind. What is the best explanation of this result?

a. The gene for color vision is incompletely dominant to the gene for sex determination.
b. The gene for color vision is linked to the X chromosome.
c. The gene for color vision is codominant with the gene for sex determination.
d. The gene for color vision is completely dominant to the gene for sex determination.
e. The gene for color vision is linked to the Y chromosome.

2007-12-18 12:50:36 · 2 answers · asked by ursportsguy 1 in Science & Mathematics Biology

2 answers

B. It's X linked

Do a punnet square with X' being the colorblind trait...so X'X' mates with XY
they have X'X and X'Y children.

This means that the female progeny are heterozygotes/ not affected. And the males are affected.

2007-12-18 12:54:46 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Considering most men are colored blind, not women, they have a good chance of having males that are colored blind, more so than females.

2007-12-18 20:58:31 · answer #2 · answered by MadforMAC 7 · 0 0

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